If $f$ has an unbound derivative - is $f$ necessarily non-Lipshitz?












0












$begingroup$


So we assume that $f$ is differentiable on some closed interval $[a,b]$ and has a derivative $f'$ which is not bounded.
Is there a way to show that $f$ is non-Lipshitz?



If not, is there some intuitive counter example (like of the form $x^psin{left(frac{1}{x}right)})$?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Try it the other way around: If $f$ is Lipschitz continuous (and differentiable) then the derivative is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Jan 13 at 16:31










  • $begingroup$
    This is immediate from the definition of $f'$. Hint: If $lim_{hto0}phi(h)>M$ then there exists $hne0$ such that $phi(h)>M$...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 13 at 16:40
















0












$begingroup$


So we assume that $f$ is differentiable on some closed interval $[a,b]$ and has a derivative $f'$ which is not bounded.
Is there a way to show that $f$ is non-Lipshitz?



If not, is there some intuitive counter example (like of the form $x^psin{left(frac{1}{x}right)})$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Try it the other way around: If $f$ is Lipschitz continuous (and differentiable) then the derivative is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Jan 13 at 16:31










  • $begingroup$
    This is immediate from the definition of $f'$. Hint: If $lim_{hto0}phi(h)>M$ then there exists $hne0$ such that $phi(h)>M$...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 13 at 16:40














0












0








0





$begingroup$


So we assume that $f$ is differentiable on some closed interval $[a,b]$ and has a derivative $f'$ which is not bounded.
Is there a way to show that $f$ is non-Lipshitz?



If not, is there some intuitive counter example (like of the form $x^psin{left(frac{1}{x}right)})$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




So we assume that $f$ is differentiable on some closed interval $[a,b]$ and has a derivative $f'$ which is not bounded.
Is there a way to show that $f$ is non-Lipshitz?



If not, is there some intuitive counter example (like of the form $x^psin{left(frac{1}{x}right)})$?







calculus lipschitz-functions






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asked Jan 13 at 16:28









Ran KiriRan Kiri

14215




14215












  • $begingroup$
    Try it the other way around: If $f$ is Lipschitz continuous (and differentiable) then the derivative is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Jan 13 at 16:31










  • $begingroup$
    This is immediate from the definition of $f'$. Hint: If $lim_{hto0}phi(h)>M$ then there exists $hne0$ such that $phi(h)>M$...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 13 at 16:40


















  • $begingroup$
    Try it the other way around: If $f$ is Lipschitz continuous (and differentiable) then the derivative is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Jan 13 at 16:31










  • $begingroup$
    This is immediate from the definition of $f'$. Hint: If $lim_{hto0}phi(h)>M$ then there exists $hne0$ such that $phi(h)>M$...
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 13 at 16:40
















$begingroup$
Try it the other way around: If $f$ is Lipschitz continuous (and differentiable) then the derivative is bounded.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 13 at 16:31




$begingroup$
Try it the other way around: If $f$ is Lipschitz continuous (and differentiable) then the derivative is bounded.
$endgroup$
– Martin R
Jan 13 at 16:31












$begingroup$
This is immediate from the definition of $f'$. Hint: If $lim_{hto0}phi(h)>M$ then there exists $hne0$ such that $phi(h)>M$...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 13 at 16:40




$begingroup$
This is immediate from the definition of $f'$. Hint: If $lim_{hto0}phi(h)>M$ then there exists $hne0$ such that $phi(h)>M$...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 13 at 16:40










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Yes, that conclusion holds. A proof by contraposition would be to show that (for a differentiable function $f$ on $[a, b]$)



$$
text{$f$ is Lipschitz} implies text{$f'$ is bounded.}
$$



So assume that
$f$ is Lipschitz continuous with some Lipschitz constant $L$. Then
$$
leftvert frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0} right vert le L
$$

for all $x, x_0 in [a, b]$ with $x ne x_0$. Taking the limit $x to x_0$ it follows that
$$
|f'(x_0)| le L
$$

for all $x_0 in [a, b]$, i.e. $f'$ is bounded.






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    1 Answer
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    $begingroup$

    Yes, that conclusion holds. A proof by contraposition would be to show that (for a differentiable function $f$ on $[a, b]$)



    $$
    text{$f$ is Lipschitz} implies text{$f'$ is bounded.}
    $$



    So assume that
    $f$ is Lipschitz continuous with some Lipschitz constant $L$. Then
    $$
    leftvert frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0} right vert le L
    $$

    for all $x, x_0 in [a, b]$ with $x ne x_0$. Taking the limit $x to x_0$ it follows that
    $$
    |f'(x_0)| le L
    $$

    for all $x_0 in [a, b]$, i.e. $f'$ is bounded.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Yes, that conclusion holds. A proof by contraposition would be to show that (for a differentiable function $f$ on $[a, b]$)



      $$
      text{$f$ is Lipschitz} implies text{$f'$ is bounded.}
      $$



      So assume that
      $f$ is Lipschitz continuous with some Lipschitz constant $L$. Then
      $$
      leftvert frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0} right vert le L
      $$

      for all $x, x_0 in [a, b]$ with $x ne x_0$. Taking the limit $x to x_0$ it follows that
      $$
      |f'(x_0)| le L
      $$

      for all $x_0 in [a, b]$, i.e. $f'$ is bounded.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Yes, that conclusion holds. A proof by contraposition would be to show that (for a differentiable function $f$ on $[a, b]$)



        $$
        text{$f$ is Lipschitz} implies text{$f'$ is bounded.}
        $$



        So assume that
        $f$ is Lipschitz continuous with some Lipschitz constant $L$. Then
        $$
        leftvert frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0} right vert le L
        $$

        for all $x, x_0 in [a, b]$ with $x ne x_0$. Taking the limit $x to x_0$ it follows that
        $$
        |f'(x_0)| le L
        $$

        for all $x_0 in [a, b]$, i.e. $f'$ is bounded.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Yes, that conclusion holds. A proof by contraposition would be to show that (for a differentiable function $f$ on $[a, b]$)



        $$
        text{$f$ is Lipschitz} implies text{$f'$ is bounded.}
        $$



        So assume that
        $f$ is Lipschitz continuous with some Lipschitz constant $L$. Then
        $$
        leftvert frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0} right vert le L
        $$

        for all $x, x_0 in [a, b]$ with $x ne x_0$. Taking the limit $x to x_0$ it follows that
        $$
        |f'(x_0)| le L
        $$

        for all $x_0 in [a, b]$, i.e. $f'$ is bounded.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 13 at 16:54

























        answered Jan 13 at 16:46









        Martin RMartin R

        28.8k33356




        28.8k33356






























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