Is there a “monotonicity” property for analytic continuation?
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If I have two complex functions defined by power series $A(z) = sum a_n z^n $, $B(z) = sum b_n z^n$ with $|a_n| ge |b_n|$ for all $n$, and I know that $A$ converges in some set $U_1$ and defines a function of $z$ with an analytic extension to set $U_2$, then of course $B$ converges in $U_1$ also, but does this imply that $B$ has an analytic extension to $U_2$?
It would be nice if this were true, but I am a bit concerned because it's not hard to imagine a situation in which $B(z)$ that slightly shifts the region where $A(z)$ fails to have an analytic continuation. Can anyone help me think of a concrete counter example, or give an idea towards a proof?
complex-analysis power-series analytic-functions analytic-continuation
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I have two complex functions defined by power series $A(z) = sum a_n z^n $, $B(z) = sum b_n z^n$ with $|a_n| ge |b_n|$ for all $n$, and I know that $A$ converges in some set $U_1$ and defines a function of $z$ with an analytic extension to set $U_2$, then of course $B$ converges in $U_1$ also, but does this imply that $B$ has an analytic extension to $U_2$?
It would be nice if this were true, but I am a bit concerned because it's not hard to imagine a situation in which $B(z)$ that slightly shifts the region where $A(z)$ fails to have an analytic continuation. Can anyone help me think of a concrete counter example, or give an idea towards a proof?
complex-analysis power-series analytic-functions analytic-continuation
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2
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As stated, what you say about convergence is false, never mind analytic continuation. (Consider $b_n=-n!$, $a_n=1/n!$.) Surely you meant $a_nge b_nge 0$, or maybe just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. With that change it seems like a reasonable question - my guess is the answer is "of course not", but I don't have a counterexample handy.
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– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:15
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Better example: $b_n=-2^n$, $a_n=1$, so both series have positive radius of convergence.
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– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:40
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Good catch, I did indeed mean to have absolute values; edited that. My guess is also "of course not" but I am having trouble thinking of an example.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I have two complex functions defined by power series $A(z) = sum a_n z^n $, $B(z) = sum b_n z^n$ with $|a_n| ge |b_n|$ for all $n$, and I know that $A$ converges in some set $U_1$ and defines a function of $z$ with an analytic extension to set $U_2$, then of course $B$ converges in $U_1$ also, but does this imply that $B$ has an analytic extension to $U_2$?
It would be nice if this were true, but I am a bit concerned because it's not hard to imagine a situation in which $B(z)$ that slightly shifts the region where $A(z)$ fails to have an analytic continuation. Can anyone help me think of a concrete counter example, or give an idea towards a proof?
complex-analysis power-series analytic-functions analytic-continuation
$endgroup$
If I have two complex functions defined by power series $A(z) = sum a_n z^n $, $B(z) = sum b_n z^n$ with $|a_n| ge |b_n|$ for all $n$, and I know that $A$ converges in some set $U_1$ and defines a function of $z$ with an analytic extension to set $U_2$, then of course $B$ converges in $U_1$ also, but does this imply that $B$ has an analytic extension to $U_2$?
It would be nice if this were true, but I am a bit concerned because it's not hard to imagine a situation in which $B(z)$ that slightly shifts the region where $A(z)$ fails to have an analytic continuation. Can anyone help me think of a concrete counter example, or give an idea towards a proof?
complex-analysis power-series analytic-functions analytic-continuation
complex-analysis power-series analytic-functions analytic-continuation
edited Jan 15 at 18:56
Dylan
asked Jan 15 at 18:02
DylanDylan
33
33
2
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As stated, what you say about convergence is false, never mind analytic continuation. (Consider $b_n=-n!$, $a_n=1/n!$.) Surely you meant $a_nge b_nge 0$, or maybe just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. With that change it seems like a reasonable question - my guess is the answer is "of course not", but I don't have a counterexample handy.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:15
$begingroup$
Better example: $b_n=-2^n$, $a_n=1$, so both series have positive radius of convergence.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:40
$begingroup$
Good catch, I did indeed mean to have absolute values; edited that. My guess is also "of course not" but I am having trouble thinking of an example.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:57
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
As stated, what you say about convergence is false, never mind analytic continuation. (Consider $b_n=-n!$, $a_n=1/n!$.) Surely you meant $a_nge b_nge 0$, or maybe just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. With that change it seems like a reasonable question - my guess is the answer is "of course not", but I don't have a counterexample handy.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:15
$begingroup$
Better example: $b_n=-2^n$, $a_n=1$, so both series have positive radius of convergence.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:40
$begingroup$
Good catch, I did indeed mean to have absolute values; edited that. My guess is also "of course not" but I am having trouble thinking of an example.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:57
2
2
$begingroup$
As stated, what you say about convergence is false, never mind analytic continuation. (Consider $b_n=-n!$, $a_n=1/n!$.) Surely you meant $a_nge b_nge 0$, or maybe just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. With that change it seems like a reasonable question - my guess is the answer is "of course not", but I don't have a counterexample handy.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:15
$begingroup$
As stated, what you say about convergence is false, never mind analytic continuation. (Consider $b_n=-n!$, $a_n=1/n!$.) Surely you meant $a_nge b_nge 0$, or maybe just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. With that change it seems like a reasonable question - my guess is the answer is "of course not", but I don't have a counterexample handy.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:15
$begingroup$
Better example: $b_n=-2^n$, $a_n=1$, so both series have positive radius of convergence.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:40
$begingroup$
Better example: $b_n=-2^n$, $a_n=1$, so both series have positive radius of convergence.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:40
$begingroup$
Good catch, I did indeed mean to have absolute values; edited that. My guess is also "of course not" but I am having trouble thinking of an example.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:57
$begingroup$
Good catch, I did indeed mean to have absolute values; edited that. My guess is also "of course not" but I am having trouble thinking of an example.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:57
add a comment |
1 Answer
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We need to modify the hypotheses to get a reasonable question; if $b_n<0$ and $a_n>0$ then $b_nle a_n$ but there's obviously no inclusion that follows even for the region of convergence.
Two reasonable questions might be the above assuming $a_nge b_nge0$ or assuming just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. The answer is no for the second version: If $A(z)=1/(z-1)$ and $B(z)=1/(z+1)$ then $|b_n|=|a_n|$ but there is no inclusion between the two regions of continuation.
Ah, a more interesting counterexample with $a_nge b_nge0$: $$A(z)=sum z^n,$$ $$B(z)=sum z^{2^n}.$$Then $A$ extends to a function holomorphic in $Bbb Csetminus{1}$, while it's well known that $B$ does not extend past any point of the unit circle.
(Heh: Replacing $B$ by $(A+B)/3$ gives a counterexample with $a_n>b_n>0$, the strongest version of the hypothesis I can think of. So it's really no, with no way to fix it.)
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thank you for the examples! They are both very good.
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– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:58
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
We need to modify the hypotheses to get a reasonable question; if $b_n<0$ and $a_n>0$ then $b_nle a_n$ but there's obviously no inclusion that follows even for the region of convergence.
Two reasonable questions might be the above assuming $a_nge b_nge0$ or assuming just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. The answer is no for the second version: If $A(z)=1/(z-1)$ and $B(z)=1/(z+1)$ then $|b_n|=|a_n|$ but there is no inclusion between the two regions of continuation.
Ah, a more interesting counterexample with $a_nge b_nge0$: $$A(z)=sum z^n,$$ $$B(z)=sum z^{2^n}.$$Then $A$ extends to a function holomorphic in $Bbb Csetminus{1}$, while it's well known that $B$ does not extend past any point of the unit circle.
(Heh: Replacing $B$ by $(A+B)/3$ gives a counterexample with $a_n>b_n>0$, the strongest version of the hypothesis I can think of. So it's really no, with no way to fix it.)
$endgroup$
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thank you for the examples! They are both very good.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We need to modify the hypotheses to get a reasonable question; if $b_n<0$ and $a_n>0$ then $b_nle a_n$ but there's obviously no inclusion that follows even for the region of convergence.
Two reasonable questions might be the above assuming $a_nge b_nge0$ or assuming just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. The answer is no for the second version: If $A(z)=1/(z-1)$ and $B(z)=1/(z+1)$ then $|b_n|=|a_n|$ but there is no inclusion between the two regions of continuation.
Ah, a more interesting counterexample with $a_nge b_nge0$: $$A(z)=sum z^n,$$ $$B(z)=sum z^{2^n}.$$Then $A$ extends to a function holomorphic in $Bbb Csetminus{1}$, while it's well known that $B$ does not extend past any point of the unit circle.
(Heh: Replacing $B$ by $(A+B)/3$ gives a counterexample with $a_n>b_n>0$, the strongest version of the hypothesis I can think of. So it's really no, with no way to fix it.)
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
thank you for the examples! They are both very good.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We need to modify the hypotheses to get a reasonable question; if $b_n<0$ and $a_n>0$ then $b_nle a_n$ but there's obviously no inclusion that follows even for the region of convergence.
Two reasonable questions might be the above assuming $a_nge b_nge0$ or assuming just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. The answer is no for the second version: If $A(z)=1/(z-1)$ and $B(z)=1/(z+1)$ then $|b_n|=|a_n|$ but there is no inclusion between the two regions of continuation.
Ah, a more interesting counterexample with $a_nge b_nge0$: $$A(z)=sum z^n,$$ $$B(z)=sum z^{2^n}.$$Then $A$ extends to a function holomorphic in $Bbb Csetminus{1}$, while it's well known that $B$ does not extend past any point of the unit circle.
(Heh: Replacing $B$ by $(A+B)/3$ gives a counterexample with $a_n>b_n>0$, the strongest version of the hypothesis I can think of. So it's really no, with no way to fix it.)
$endgroup$
We need to modify the hypotheses to get a reasonable question; if $b_n<0$ and $a_n>0$ then $b_nle a_n$ but there's obviously no inclusion that follows even for the region of convergence.
Two reasonable questions might be the above assuming $a_nge b_nge0$ or assuming just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. The answer is no for the second version: If $A(z)=1/(z-1)$ and $B(z)=1/(z+1)$ then $|b_n|=|a_n|$ but there is no inclusion between the two regions of continuation.
Ah, a more interesting counterexample with $a_nge b_nge0$: $$A(z)=sum z^n,$$ $$B(z)=sum z^{2^n}.$$Then $A$ extends to a function holomorphic in $Bbb Csetminus{1}$, while it's well known that $B$ does not extend past any point of the unit circle.
(Heh: Replacing $B$ by $(A+B)/3$ gives a counterexample with $a_n>b_n>0$, the strongest version of the hypothesis I can think of. So it's really no, with no way to fix it.)
edited Jan 15 at 19:03
answered Jan 15 at 18:35
David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich
60.9k43994
60.9k43994
$begingroup$
thank you for the examples! They are both very good.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
thank you for the examples! They are both very good.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:58
$begingroup$
thank you for the examples! They are both very good.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:58
$begingroup$
thank you for the examples! They are both very good.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:58
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
As stated, what you say about convergence is false, never mind analytic continuation. (Consider $b_n=-n!$, $a_n=1/n!$.) Surely you meant $a_nge b_nge 0$, or maybe just $|a_n|ge |b_n|$. With that change it seems like a reasonable question - my guess is the answer is "of course not", but I don't have a counterexample handy.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:15
$begingroup$
Better example: $b_n=-2^n$, $a_n=1$, so both series have positive radius of convergence.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 15 at 18:40
$begingroup$
Good catch, I did indeed mean to have absolute values; edited that. My guess is also "of course not" but I am having trouble thinking of an example.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 15 at 18:57