Cauchy problem with specific value of starting point, find limit












0












$begingroup$


I have the following Cauchy problem:



$$ y' = vert y vert - arctan{e^x} $$
$$ y(0) = y_0 $$



I want to prove that there exists a specific value of $y_0$ such that:



$$ lim_{xtoinfty} y(x) = frac{pi}{2}.$$



I am not too sure how to even start on this, beside saying that f(x,y) is Lipschizt and therefore I have local uniqueness and existence of solution which can be extended globally to $mathbb{R}$. Any help?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As long as $y geq 0$ you can study the linear ODE $y' = y - arctan(e^x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 29 at 12:10
















0












$begingroup$


I have the following Cauchy problem:



$$ y' = vert y vert - arctan{e^x} $$
$$ y(0) = y_0 $$



I want to prove that there exists a specific value of $y_0$ such that:



$$ lim_{xtoinfty} y(x) = frac{pi}{2}.$$



I am not too sure how to even start on this, beside saying that f(x,y) is Lipschizt and therefore I have local uniqueness and existence of solution which can be extended globally to $mathbb{R}$. Any help?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As long as $y geq 0$ you can study the linear ODE $y' = y - arctan(e^x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 29 at 12:10














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have the following Cauchy problem:



$$ y' = vert y vert - arctan{e^x} $$
$$ y(0) = y_0 $$



I want to prove that there exists a specific value of $y_0$ such that:



$$ lim_{xtoinfty} y(x) = frac{pi}{2}.$$



I am not too sure how to even start on this, beside saying that f(x,y) is Lipschizt and therefore I have local uniqueness and existence of solution which can be extended globally to $mathbb{R}$. Any help?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have the following Cauchy problem:



$$ y' = vert y vert - arctan{e^x} $$
$$ y(0) = y_0 $$



I want to prove that there exists a specific value of $y_0$ such that:



$$ lim_{xtoinfty} y(x) = frac{pi}{2}.$$



I am not too sure how to even start on this, beside saying that f(x,y) is Lipschizt and therefore I have local uniqueness and existence of solution which can be extended globally to $mathbb{R}$. Any help?







ordinary-differential-equations cauchy-problem






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 29 at 11:44









Julián Aguirre

69.6k24297




69.6k24297










asked Jan 29 at 10:14









qcc101qcc101

629213




629213












  • $begingroup$
    As long as $y geq 0$ you can study the linear ODE $y' = y - arctan(e^x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 29 at 12:10


















  • $begingroup$
    As long as $y geq 0$ you can study the linear ODE $y' = y - arctan(e^x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Jan 29 at 12:10
















$begingroup$
As long as $y geq 0$ you can study the linear ODE $y' = y - arctan(e^x)$.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Jan 29 at 12:10




$begingroup$
As long as $y geq 0$ you can study the linear ODE $y' = y - arctan(e^x)$.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Jan 29 at 12:10










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Let $y($ be a solution and suppose that $y(x)=0$ for some $xge0$. Then $y'(x)<0$. This implies that once a solution takes a negative value, it remains negative, Thus, the only way to solve the problem is to look for positive solutions. This means solving the linear equation $y'=y-arctan(e^x)$. Its solution is
$$
y(x)=e^xBigl(y_0-int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dtBigr).
$$

This will be positive if and only if
$$
y_0ge int_0^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=a.
$$

If $y_0>a$, then $lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=infty$. If $y_0=a$, then
$$
lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=lim_{xtoinfty}e^xint_x^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=fracpi2.
$$

Note. Although it is not needed for the argument, the actual value of $a$ is
$$
frac{pi+log4}{4}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    If $y_0 = a $ wouldn't y(x) be always 0?
    $endgroup$
    – qcc101
    Jan 31 at 10:04












  • $begingroup$
    No. If $x<infty$, then $y_0>int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt$.
    $endgroup$
    – Julián Aguirre
    Jan 31 at 12:30












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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

Let $y($ be a solution and suppose that $y(x)=0$ for some $xge0$. Then $y'(x)<0$. This implies that once a solution takes a negative value, it remains negative, Thus, the only way to solve the problem is to look for positive solutions. This means solving the linear equation $y'=y-arctan(e^x)$. Its solution is
$$
y(x)=e^xBigl(y_0-int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dtBigr).
$$

This will be positive if and only if
$$
y_0ge int_0^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=a.
$$

If $y_0>a$, then $lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=infty$. If $y_0=a$, then
$$
lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=lim_{xtoinfty}e^xint_x^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=fracpi2.
$$

Note. Although it is not needed for the argument, the actual value of $a$ is
$$
frac{pi+log4}{4}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    If $y_0 = a $ wouldn't y(x) be always 0?
    $endgroup$
    – qcc101
    Jan 31 at 10:04












  • $begingroup$
    No. If $x<infty$, then $y_0>int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt$.
    $endgroup$
    – Julián Aguirre
    Jan 31 at 12:30
















0












$begingroup$

Let $y($ be a solution and suppose that $y(x)=0$ for some $xge0$. Then $y'(x)<0$. This implies that once a solution takes a negative value, it remains negative, Thus, the only way to solve the problem is to look for positive solutions. This means solving the linear equation $y'=y-arctan(e^x)$. Its solution is
$$
y(x)=e^xBigl(y_0-int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dtBigr).
$$

This will be positive if and only if
$$
y_0ge int_0^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=a.
$$

If $y_0>a$, then $lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=infty$. If $y_0=a$, then
$$
lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=lim_{xtoinfty}e^xint_x^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=fracpi2.
$$

Note. Although it is not needed for the argument, the actual value of $a$ is
$$
frac{pi+log4}{4}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    If $y_0 = a $ wouldn't y(x) be always 0?
    $endgroup$
    – qcc101
    Jan 31 at 10:04












  • $begingroup$
    No. If $x<infty$, then $y_0>int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt$.
    $endgroup$
    – Julián Aguirre
    Jan 31 at 12:30














0












0








0





$begingroup$

Let $y($ be a solution and suppose that $y(x)=0$ for some $xge0$. Then $y'(x)<0$. This implies that once a solution takes a negative value, it remains negative, Thus, the only way to solve the problem is to look for positive solutions. This means solving the linear equation $y'=y-arctan(e^x)$. Its solution is
$$
y(x)=e^xBigl(y_0-int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dtBigr).
$$

This will be positive if and only if
$$
y_0ge int_0^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=a.
$$

If $y_0>a$, then $lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=infty$. If $y_0=a$, then
$$
lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=lim_{xtoinfty}e^xint_x^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=fracpi2.
$$

Note. Although it is not needed for the argument, the actual value of $a$ is
$$
frac{pi+log4}{4}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Let $y($ be a solution and suppose that $y(x)=0$ for some $xge0$. Then $y'(x)<0$. This implies that once a solution takes a negative value, it remains negative, Thus, the only way to solve the problem is to look for positive solutions. This means solving the linear equation $y'=y-arctan(e^x)$. Its solution is
$$
y(x)=e^xBigl(y_0-int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dtBigr).
$$

This will be positive if and only if
$$
y_0ge int_0^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=a.
$$

If $y_0>a$, then $lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=infty$. If $y_0=a$, then
$$
lim_{xtoinfty}y(x)=lim_{xtoinfty}e^xint_x^infty e^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt=fracpi2.
$$

Note. Although it is not needed for the argument, the actual value of $a$ is
$$
frac{pi+log4}{4}.
$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 29 at 21:01









Julián AguirreJulián Aguirre

69.6k24297




69.6k24297












  • $begingroup$
    If $y_0 = a $ wouldn't y(x) be always 0?
    $endgroup$
    – qcc101
    Jan 31 at 10:04












  • $begingroup$
    No. If $x<infty$, then $y_0>int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt$.
    $endgroup$
    – Julián Aguirre
    Jan 31 at 12:30


















  • $begingroup$
    If $y_0 = a $ wouldn't y(x) be always 0?
    $endgroup$
    – qcc101
    Jan 31 at 10:04












  • $begingroup$
    No. If $x<infty$, then $y_0>int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt$.
    $endgroup$
    – Julián Aguirre
    Jan 31 at 12:30
















$begingroup$
If $y_0 = a $ wouldn't y(x) be always 0?
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 31 at 10:04






$begingroup$
If $y_0 = a $ wouldn't y(x) be always 0?
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 31 at 10:04














$begingroup$
No. If $x<infty$, then $y_0>int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt$.
$endgroup$
– Julián Aguirre
Jan 31 at 12:30




$begingroup$
No. If $x<infty$, then $y_0>int_0^xe^{-t}arctan(e^t),dt$.
$endgroup$
– Julián Aguirre
Jan 31 at 12:30


















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