Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.












0












$begingroup$


Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.



Let $Z_n = max(X_1,...,X_n)$



I want to study the convergence of $Z_n$ and of $frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n$



First of all I find the CDF of $Z_n$:
$$ F_{Z_n}(z) = (1-e^{-lambda z})^n $$



The limit of n going to infinity is 0 but there doesn't exist a random function with CDF constant equal to 0, so It doesn't converge in law.



Now if I multiply for $frac{1}{log{n}}$, I get:



$$F_{frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n}(z) = (1- e^{-lambda log{n} z})^n$$



This should converge to the constant $frac{1}{lambda}$ but I am not sure why.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.



    Let $Z_n = max(X_1,...,X_n)$



    I want to study the convergence of $Z_n$ and of $frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n$



    First of all I find the CDF of $Z_n$:
    $$ F_{Z_n}(z) = (1-e^{-lambda z})^n $$



    The limit of n going to infinity is 0 but there doesn't exist a random function with CDF constant equal to 0, so It doesn't converge in law.



    Now if I multiply for $frac{1}{log{n}}$, I get:



    $$F_{frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n}(z) = (1- e^{-lambda log{n} z})^n$$



    This should converge to the constant $frac{1}{lambda}$ but I am not sure why.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.



      Let $Z_n = max(X_1,...,X_n)$



      I want to study the convergence of $Z_n$ and of $frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n$



      First of all I find the CDF of $Z_n$:
      $$ F_{Z_n}(z) = (1-e^{-lambda z})^n $$



      The limit of n going to infinity is 0 but there doesn't exist a random function with CDF constant equal to 0, so It doesn't converge in law.



      Now if I multiply for $frac{1}{log{n}}$, I get:



      $$F_{frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n}(z) = (1- e^{-lambda log{n} z})^n$$



      This should converge to the constant $frac{1}{lambda}$ but I am not sure why.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.



      Let $Z_n = max(X_1,...,X_n)$



      I want to study the convergence of $Z_n$ and of $frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n$



      First of all I find the CDF of $Z_n$:
      $$ F_{Z_n}(z) = (1-e^{-lambda z})^n $$



      The limit of n going to infinity is 0 but there doesn't exist a random function with CDF constant equal to 0, so It doesn't converge in law.



      Now if I multiply for $frac{1}{log{n}}$, I get:



      $$F_{frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n}(z) = (1- e^{-lambda log{n} z})^n$$



      This should converge to the constant $frac{1}{lambda}$ but I am not sure why.







      probability weak-convergence






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      asked Jan 24 at 7:54









      qcc101qcc101

      627213




      627213






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          Note that
          begin{align}
          P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
          end{align}

          Therefore,
          begin{align}
          lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
          &= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
          &= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
          &= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
          end{align}

          which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 24 at 9:58










          • $begingroup$
            Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
            $endgroup$
            – user52227
            Jan 24 at 14:37











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          Note that
          begin{align}
          P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
          end{align}

          Therefore,
          begin{align}
          lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
          &= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
          &= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
          &= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
          end{align}

          which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 24 at 9:58










          • $begingroup$
            Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
            $endgroup$
            – user52227
            Jan 24 at 14:37
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Note that
          begin{align}
          P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
          end{align}

          Therefore,
          begin{align}
          lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
          &= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
          &= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
          &= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
          end{align}

          which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 24 at 9:58










          • $begingroup$
            Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
            $endgroup$
            – user52227
            Jan 24 at 14:37














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Note that
          begin{align}
          P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
          end{align}

          Therefore,
          begin{align}
          lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
          &= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
          &= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
          &= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
          end{align}

          which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Note that
          begin{align}
          P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
          end{align}

          Therefore,
          begin{align}
          lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
          &= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
          &= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
          &= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
          end{align}

          which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 24 at 8:28









          user52227user52227

          1,038512




          1,038512












          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 24 at 9:58










          • $begingroup$
            Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
            $endgroup$
            – user52227
            Jan 24 at 14:37


















          • $begingroup$
            I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 24 at 9:58










          • $begingroup$
            Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
            $endgroup$
            – user52227
            Jan 24 at 14:37
















          $begingroup$
          I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
          $endgroup$
          – qcc101
          Jan 24 at 9:58




          $begingroup$
          I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
          $endgroup$
          – qcc101
          Jan 24 at 9:58












          $begingroup$
          Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
          $endgroup$
          – user52227
          Jan 24 at 14:37




          $begingroup$
          Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
          $endgroup$
          – user52227
          Jan 24 at 14:37


















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