Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.
$begingroup$
Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.
Let $Z_n = max(X_1,...,X_n)$
I want to study the convergence of $Z_n$ and of $frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n$
First of all I find the CDF of $Z_n$:
$$ F_{Z_n}(z) = (1-e^{-lambda z})^n $$
The limit of n going to infinity is 0 but there doesn't exist a random function with CDF constant equal to 0, so It doesn't converge in law.
Now if I multiply for $frac{1}{log{n}}$, I get:
$$F_{frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n}(z) = (1- e^{-lambda log{n} z})^n$$
This should converge to the constant $frac{1}{lambda}$ but I am not sure why.
probability weak-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.
Let $Z_n = max(X_1,...,X_n)$
I want to study the convergence of $Z_n$ and of $frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n$
First of all I find the CDF of $Z_n$:
$$ F_{Z_n}(z) = (1-e^{-lambda z})^n $$
The limit of n going to infinity is 0 but there doesn't exist a random function with CDF constant equal to 0, so It doesn't converge in law.
Now if I multiply for $frac{1}{log{n}}$, I get:
$$F_{frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n}(z) = (1- e^{-lambda log{n} z})^n$$
This should converge to the constant $frac{1}{lambda}$ but I am not sure why.
probability weak-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.
Let $Z_n = max(X_1,...,X_n)$
I want to study the convergence of $Z_n$ and of $frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n$
First of all I find the CDF of $Z_n$:
$$ F_{Z_n}(z) = (1-e^{-lambda z})^n $$
The limit of n going to infinity is 0 but there doesn't exist a random function with CDF constant equal to 0, so It doesn't converge in law.
Now if I multiply for $frac{1}{log{n}}$, I get:
$$F_{frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n}(z) = (1- e^{-lambda log{n} z})^n$$
This should converge to the constant $frac{1}{lambda}$ but I am not sure why.
probability weak-convergence
$endgroup$
Let $X_n$ be succession of independent exponentials of parameter $lambda$.
Let $Z_n = max(X_1,...,X_n)$
I want to study the convergence of $Z_n$ and of $frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n$
First of all I find the CDF of $Z_n$:
$$ F_{Z_n}(z) = (1-e^{-lambda z})^n $$
The limit of n going to infinity is 0 but there doesn't exist a random function with CDF constant equal to 0, so It doesn't converge in law.
Now if I multiply for $frac{1}{log{n}}$, I get:
$$F_{frac{1}{log{n}}Z_n}(z) = (1- e^{-lambda log{n} z})^n$$
This should converge to the constant $frac{1}{lambda}$ but I am not sure why.
probability weak-convergence
probability weak-convergence
asked Jan 24 at 7:54
qcc101qcc101
627213
627213
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Note that
begin{align}
P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
end{align}
Therefore,
begin{align}
lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
&= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
&= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
&= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
end{align}
which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 24 at 9:58
$begingroup$
Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
$endgroup$
– user52227
Jan 24 at 14:37
add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Note that
begin{align}
P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
end{align}
Therefore,
begin{align}
lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
&= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
&= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
&= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
end{align}
which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 24 at 9:58
$begingroup$
Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
$endgroup$
– user52227
Jan 24 at 14:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
begin{align}
P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
end{align}
Therefore,
begin{align}
lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
&= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
&= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
&= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
end{align}
which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 24 at 9:58
$begingroup$
Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
$endgroup$
– user52227
Jan 24 at 14:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
begin{align}
P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
end{align}
Therefore,
begin{align}
lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
&= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
&= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
&= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
end{align}
which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.
$endgroup$
Note that
begin{align}
P(Z_nle zlog n) = left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^n = left(left(1-frac{1}{n^{lambda z}}right)^{n^{lambda z}} right)^{frac{n}{n^{lambda z}}} \
end{align}
Therefore,
begin{align}
lim_n P(Z_nle zlog n)
&= frac{1}{e}, quad mbox{ if } lambda z=1\
&= 1, quad mbox{ if } lambda z>1\
&= 0, quad mbox{ if } lambda z<1
end{align}
which means that the sequence $Z_n/log n$ converges in distribution to $frac{1}{lambda}$ (we do not care about the point $z=1/lambda$ because it is not a point of continuity of the distribution function of the constant random variable $1/lambda$). Since it converges to a constant, $Z_n/log n$ also converges in probability.
answered Jan 24 at 8:28
user52227user52227
1,038512
1,038512
$begingroup$
I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 24 at 9:58
$begingroup$
Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
$endgroup$
– user52227
Jan 24 at 14:37
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 24 at 9:58
$begingroup$
Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
$endgroup$
– user52227
Jan 24 at 14:37
$begingroup$
I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 24 at 9:58
$begingroup$
I don't see why it should converge to $frac{1}{lambda}$..
$endgroup$
– qcc101
Jan 24 at 9:58
$begingroup$
Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
$endgroup$
– user52227
Jan 24 at 14:37
$begingroup$
Think about the CDF of the random variable $1/lambda$ (ie, 0 if $z<1/lambda$ and 1 if $zge 1/lambda$). Then, apply exactly the definition of convergence in distribution (eg, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… )
$endgroup$
– user52227
Jan 24 at 14:37
add a comment |
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