Probability of coin flip












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I was wondering about the probability of coin flips. How many times would i need to toss a coin to have at least 75% chance of getting a head.



I know the answer would be $1-left(left(frac{1}{2}right)^2right)$ = 2 throws but how would you work it out without trial and error.










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  • $begingroup$
    One flip you gain .5, another flip you get half of that which makes .75 so 2
    $endgroup$
    – suomynonA
    Dec 7 '16 at 3:01










  • $begingroup$
    Log(1-3/4)/log(1/2)?
    $endgroup$
    – Kitter Catter
    Dec 7 '16 at 3:06
















0












$begingroup$


I was wondering about the probability of coin flips. How many times would i need to toss a coin to have at least 75% chance of getting a head.



I know the answer would be $1-left(left(frac{1}{2}right)^2right)$ = 2 throws but how would you work it out without trial and error.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    One flip you gain .5, another flip you get half of that which makes .75 so 2
    $endgroup$
    – suomynonA
    Dec 7 '16 at 3:01










  • $begingroup$
    Log(1-3/4)/log(1/2)?
    $endgroup$
    – Kitter Catter
    Dec 7 '16 at 3:06














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I was wondering about the probability of coin flips. How many times would i need to toss a coin to have at least 75% chance of getting a head.



I know the answer would be $1-left(left(frac{1}{2}right)^2right)$ = 2 throws but how would you work it out without trial and error.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I was wondering about the probability of coin flips. How many times would i need to toss a coin to have at least 75% chance of getting a head.



I know the answer would be $1-left(left(frac{1}{2}right)^2right)$ = 2 throws but how would you work it out without trial and error.







probability






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asked Dec 7 '16 at 3:00









mattmatt

103




103












  • $begingroup$
    One flip you gain .5, another flip you get half of that which makes .75 so 2
    $endgroup$
    – suomynonA
    Dec 7 '16 at 3:01










  • $begingroup$
    Log(1-3/4)/log(1/2)?
    $endgroup$
    – Kitter Catter
    Dec 7 '16 at 3:06


















  • $begingroup$
    One flip you gain .5, another flip you get half of that which makes .75 so 2
    $endgroup$
    – suomynonA
    Dec 7 '16 at 3:01










  • $begingroup$
    Log(1-3/4)/log(1/2)?
    $endgroup$
    – Kitter Catter
    Dec 7 '16 at 3:06
















$begingroup$
One flip you gain .5, another flip you get half of that which makes .75 so 2
$endgroup$
– suomynonA
Dec 7 '16 at 3:01




$begingroup$
One flip you gain .5, another flip you get half of that which makes .75 so 2
$endgroup$
– suomynonA
Dec 7 '16 at 3:01












$begingroup$
Log(1-3/4)/log(1/2)?
$endgroup$
– Kitter Catter
Dec 7 '16 at 3:06




$begingroup$
Log(1-3/4)/log(1/2)?
$endgroup$
– Kitter Catter
Dec 7 '16 at 3:06










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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1












$begingroup$

You can use complementary counting.



Having at least a $75%$ chance of getting a head is equivalent to a $(100-75)%=25%$ or lower chance of getting no heads.



Getting no heads means flipping all tails. The probability of flipping $k$ consecutive tails is $frac{1}{2^k}$. We want this probability to be less than or equal to $25%$ (or $frac{1}{4}$).



$k=2$ is the smallest solution, so you would need to toss the coin twice.






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    0












    $begingroup$

    If you want to get a%, you need $log_{1over2}1-{aover100}$ times, then find the number that is closest to it that is greater than it.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

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      active

      oldest

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      1












      $begingroup$

      You can use complementary counting.



      Having at least a $75%$ chance of getting a head is equivalent to a $(100-75)%=25%$ or lower chance of getting no heads.



      Getting no heads means flipping all tails. The probability of flipping $k$ consecutive tails is $frac{1}{2^k}$. We want this probability to be less than or equal to $25%$ (or $frac{1}{4}$).



      $k=2$ is the smallest solution, so you would need to toss the coin twice.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        You can use complementary counting.



        Having at least a $75%$ chance of getting a head is equivalent to a $(100-75)%=25%$ or lower chance of getting no heads.



        Getting no heads means flipping all tails. The probability of flipping $k$ consecutive tails is $frac{1}{2^k}$. We want this probability to be less than or equal to $25%$ (or $frac{1}{4}$).



        $k=2$ is the smallest solution, so you would need to toss the coin twice.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          You can use complementary counting.



          Having at least a $75%$ chance of getting a head is equivalent to a $(100-75)%=25%$ or lower chance of getting no heads.



          Getting no heads means flipping all tails. The probability of flipping $k$ consecutive tails is $frac{1}{2^k}$. We want this probability to be less than or equal to $25%$ (or $frac{1}{4}$).



          $k=2$ is the smallest solution, so you would need to toss the coin twice.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          You can use complementary counting.



          Having at least a $75%$ chance of getting a head is equivalent to a $(100-75)%=25%$ or lower chance of getting no heads.



          Getting no heads means flipping all tails. The probability of flipping $k$ consecutive tails is $frac{1}{2^k}$. We want this probability to be less than or equal to $25%$ (or $frac{1}{4}$).



          $k=2$ is the smallest solution, so you would need to toss the coin twice.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 7 '16 at 4:16









          JedJed

          719414




          719414























              0












              $begingroup$

              If you want to get a%, you need $log_{1over2}1-{aover100}$ times, then find the number that is closest to it that is greater than it.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                If you want to get a%, you need $log_{1over2}1-{aover100}$ times, then find the number that is closest to it that is greater than it.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  If you want to get a%, you need $log_{1over2}1-{aover100}$ times, then find the number that is closest to it that is greater than it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  If you want to get a%, you need $log_{1over2}1-{aover100}$ times, then find the number that is closest to it that is greater than it.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 22 at 0:47









                  Math LoverMath Lover

                  15910




                  15910






























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