Symmetrization of Conditional Expectation without common density












0












$begingroup$


I know that the following rule for (factorizations of) conditional expectations is true:



Theorem
Let $X : Omega to mathcal{X}=mathbb{R}$ be an integrable, real valued random variable and let $Y:Omega to mathcal{Y}, Z : Omega to mathcal{Z}$ be two further random variables then



$$E[X|Y=y] = int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) E[X|Y=y,Z=z] dz$$



(remarks on the $dz$ below). I have a proof for that involving the common density $p(x,y,z)$.



Question: Does somebody know a direct proof for that which does neither involve nor assume the mere existence of this common density but only the existence of the common density $p(y,z)$ for the random variables we condition on?





More information:



Remarks on the dz: I only want to consider the case where many of the involved random variables have (common) densities. I.e. we may restrict ourselves to the case where $Y,Z$ are of the following type:



Either they are random variables mapping to a 'nice' subset of $mathbb{R}$ (an interval I guess) and they have a density w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure or they are discretely valued (either they map to a finite set or they map to $mathbb{N}_0$) and their density is to be regarded w.r.t. the counting measure or they are simple products of such variables.



proof with $p(x,y,z)$



It is basically proved in Formal definition of conditional probability that for any measurable function $g : mathbb{R} times mathcal{Y} to mathbb{R}$ such that $g(X,Y)$ is still integrable,
$$E[g(X,Y)|Y=y] = int_{mathcal{X}} g(x,y) p(x|y) dx$$
Consequently, applying this rule twice for $g(x,y) = x$ and the random variables $Y$, respectively $(Y,Z)$,
begin{align*}
E[X|Y=y] &= int_{mathcal{X}} x p(x,y)/p(y) dx \
&= int_{mathcal{X}} x int_{mathcal{Z}}p(x,y,z) dz/p(y) dx \
&= int_{mathcal{Z}} int_{mathcal{X}} p(x|y,z)p(y,z)/p(y) dx dz\
&= int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) int_{mathcal{X}} x p(x|y,z) dx dz\
&= int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) E[X|Y=y,Z=z] dz
end{align*}



Origin of the question I want to understand the 'proof' of the so-called Bellman equation (see https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/243384/deriving-bellmans-equation-in-reinforcement-learning/300360?noredirect=1#comment725912_300360). The 'answers' to that question I am referring to make use of the fact that only because one knows properties about every finite sum $G_{t}^{(K)} := sum_{k=0}^K gamma^k R_{t+1+k}$ one also knows properties about the variable $G_{t} = sum_{k=0}^infty gamma^k R_{t+1+k}$. This is clearly not proven in the answers (also not in the accepted answer) because one does not even know whether or not the random variable $G_{t}$ has a density or not (let alone proving the existence and some properties of its common density together with some other state variables).










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I know that the following rule for (factorizations of) conditional expectations is true:



    Theorem
    Let $X : Omega to mathcal{X}=mathbb{R}$ be an integrable, real valued random variable and let $Y:Omega to mathcal{Y}, Z : Omega to mathcal{Z}$ be two further random variables then



    $$E[X|Y=y] = int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) E[X|Y=y,Z=z] dz$$



    (remarks on the $dz$ below). I have a proof for that involving the common density $p(x,y,z)$.



    Question: Does somebody know a direct proof for that which does neither involve nor assume the mere existence of this common density but only the existence of the common density $p(y,z)$ for the random variables we condition on?





    More information:



    Remarks on the dz: I only want to consider the case where many of the involved random variables have (common) densities. I.e. we may restrict ourselves to the case where $Y,Z$ are of the following type:



    Either they are random variables mapping to a 'nice' subset of $mathbb{R}$ (an interval I guess) and they have a density w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure or they are discretely valued (either they map to a finite set or they map to $mathbb{N}_0$) and their density is to be regarded w.r.t. the counting measure or they are simple products of such variables.



    proof with $p(x,y,z)$



    It is basically proved in Formal definition of conditional probability that for any measurable function $g : mathbb{R} times mathcal{Y} to mathbb{R}$ such that $g(X,Y)$ is still integrable,
    $$E[g(X,Y)|Y=y] = int_{mathcal{X}} g(x,y) p(x|y) dx$$
    Consequently, applying this rule twice for $g(x,y) = x$ and the random variables $Y$, respectively $(Y,Z)$,
    begin{align*}
    E[X|Y=y] &= int_{mathcal{X}} x p(x,y)/p(y) dx \
    &= int_{mathcal{X}} x int_{mathcal{Z}}p(x,y,z) dz/p(y) dx \
    &= int_{mathcal{Z}} int_{mathcal{X}} p(x|y,z)p(y,z)/p(y) dx dz\
    &= int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) int_{mathcal{X}} x p(x|y,z) dx dz\
    &= int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) E[X|Y=y,Z=z] dz
    end{align*}



    Origin of the question I want to understand the 'proof' of the so-called Bellman equation (see https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/243384/deriving-bellmans-equation-in-reinforcement-learning/300360?noredirect=1#comment725912_300360). The 'answers' to that question I am referring to make use of the fact that only because one knows properties about every finite sum $G_{t}^{(K)} := sum_{k=0}^K gamma^k R_{t+1+k}$ one also knows properties about the variable $G_{t} = sum_{k=0}^infty gamma^k R_{t+1+k}$. This is clearly not proven in the answers (also not in the accepted answer) because one does not even know whether or not the random variable $G_{t}$ has a density or not (let alone proving the existence and some properties of its common density together with some other state variables).










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I know that the following rule for (factorizations of) conditional expectations is true:



      Theorem
      Let $X : Omega to mathcal{X}=mathbb{R}$ be an integrable, real valued random variable and let $Y:Omega to mathcal{Y}, Z : Omega to mathcal{Z}$ be two further random variables then



      $$E[X|Y=y] = int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) E[X|Y=y,Z=z] dz$$



      (remarks on the $dz$ below). I have a proof for that involving the common density $p(x,y,z)$.



      Question: Does somebody know a direct proof for that which does neither involve nor assume the mere existence of this common density but only the existence of the common density $p(y,z)$ for the random variables we condition on?





      More information:



      Remarks on the dz: I only want to consider the case where many of the involved random variables have (common) densities. I.e. we may restrict ourselves to the case where $Y,Z$ are of the following type:



      Either they are random variables mapping to a 'nice' subset of $mathbb{R}$ (an interval I guess) and they have a density w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure or they are discretely valued (either they map to a finite set or they map to $mathbb{N}_0$) and their density is to be regarded w.r.t. the counting measure or they are simple products of such variables.



      proof with $p(x,y,z)$



      It is basically proved in Formal definition of conditional probability that for any measurable function $g : mathbb{R} times mathcal{Y} to mathbb{R}$ such that $g(X,Y)$ is still integrable,
      $$E[g(X,Y)|Y=y] = int_{mathcal{X}} g(x,y) p(x|y) dx$$
      Consequently, applying this rule twice for $g(x,y) = x$ and the random variables $Y$, respectively $(Y,Z)$,
      begin{align*}
      E[X|Y=y] &= int_{mathcal{X}} x p(x,y)/p(y) dx \
      &= int_{mathcal{X}} x int_{mathcal{Z}}p(x,y,z) dz/p(y) dx \
      &= int_{mathcal{Z}} int_{mathcal{X}} p(x|y,z)p(y,z)/p(y) dx dz\
      &= int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) int_{mathcal{X}} x p(x|y,z) dx dz\
      &= int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) E[X|Y=y,Z=z] dz
      end{align*}



      Origin of the question I want to understand the 'proof' of the so-called Bellman equation (see https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/243384/deriving-bellmans-equation-in-reinforcement-learning/300360?noredirect=1#comment725912_300360). The 'answers' to that question I am referring to make use of the fact that only because one knows properties about every finite sum $G_{t}^{(K)} := sum_{k=0}^K gamma^k R_{t+1+k}$ one also knows properties about the variable $G_{t} = sum_{k=0}^infty gamma^k R_{t+1+k}$. This is clearly not proven in the answers (also not in the accepted answer) because one does not even know whether or not the random variable $G_{t}$ has a density or not (let alone proving the existence and some properties of its common density together with some other state variables).










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I know that the following rule for (factorizations of) conditional expectations is true:



      Theorem
      Let $X : Omega to mathcal{X}=mathbb{R}$ be an integrable, real valued random variable and let $Y:Omega to mathcal{Y}, Z : Omega to mathcal{Z}$ be two further random variables then



      $$E[X|Y=y] = int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) E[X|Y=y,Z=z] dz$$



      (remarks on the $dz$ below). I have a proof for that involving the common density $p(x,y,z)$.



      Question: Does somebody know a direct proof for that which does neither involve nor assume the mere existence of this common density but only the existence of the common density $p(y,z)$ for the random variables we condition on?





      More information:



      Remarks on the dz: I only want to consider the case where many of the involved random variables have (common) densities. I.e. we may restrict ourselves to the case where $Y,Z$ are of the following type:



      Either they are random variables mapping to a 'nice' subset of $mathbb{R}$ (an interval I guess) and they have a density w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure or they are discretely valued (either they map to a finite set or they map to $mathbb{N}_0$) and their density is to be regarded w.r.t. the counting measure or they are simple products of such variables.



      proof with $p(x,y,z)$



      It is basically proved in Formal definition of conditional probability that for any measurable function $g : mathbb{R} times mathcal{Y} to mathbb{R}$ such that $g(X,Y)$ is still integrable,
      $$E[g(X,Y)|Y=y] = int_{mathcal{X}} g(x,y) p(x|y) dx$$
      Consequently, applying this rule twice for $g(x,y) = x$ and the random variables $Y$, respectively $(Y,Z)$,
      begin{align*}
      E[X|Y=y] &= int_{mathcal{X}} x p(x,y)/p(y) dx \
      &= int_{mathcal{X}} x int_{mathcal{Z}}p(x,y,z) dz/p(y) dx \
      &= int_{mathcal{Z}} int_{mathcal{X}} p(x|y,z)p(y,z)/p(y) dx dz\
      &= int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) int_{mathcal{X}} x p(x|y,z) dx dz\
      &= int_{mathcal{Z}} p(z|y) E[X|Y=y,Z=z] dz
      end{align*}



      Origin of the question I want to understand the 'proof' of the so-called Bellman equation (see https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/243384/deriving-bellmans-equation-in-reinforcement-learning/300360?noredirect=1#comment725912_300360). The 'answers' to that question I am referring to make use of the fact that only because one knows properties about every finite sum $G_{t}^{(K)} := sum_{k=0}^K gamma^k R_{t+1+k}$ one also knows properties about the variable $G_{t} = sum_{k=0}^infty gamma^k R_{t+1+k}$. This is clearly not proven in the answers (also not in the accepted answer) because one does not even know whether or not the random variable $G_{t}$ has a density or not (let alone proving the existence and some properties of its common density together with some other state variables).







      probability-theory measure-theory conditional-expectation






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      asked Jan 22 at 17:49









      Fabian WernerFabian Werner

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