Easy way to prove property of prime indicator












2












$begingroup$


Let $mu$ be the Möbius function, and let $nu(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. Then we can define $p = mu * nu$, i.e.
$$
p(n) = sum_{d mid m} mu(d) nu(n/d).
$$

An exercise in an introductory textbook I already put back on the library shelf and can't find anymore asks:




Prove that $p$ only takes the values 0 and 1.




The obvious solution seems to be through Möbius inversion: if we define $q(n)$ to be 1 when $n$ is prime and $0$ otherwise, then $nu = 1 * q$ so that $q = mu * nu = p$. However, the formulation of the question suggests that there is an easy way to prove that $p$ only takes values $0, 1$ without identifying it entirely.



How might one do that?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Let $mu$ be the Möbius function, and let $nu(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. Then we can define $p = mu * nu$, i.e.
    $$
    p(n) = sum_{d mid m} mu(d) nu(n/d).
    $$

    An exercise in an introductory textbook I already put back on the library shelf and can't find anymore asks:




    Prove that $p$ only takes the values 0 and 1.




    The obvious solution seems to be through Möbius inversion: if we define $q(n)$ to be 1 when $n$ is prime and $0$ otherwise, then $nu = 1 * q$ so that $q = mu * nu = p$. However, the formulation of the question suggests that there is an easy way to prove that $p$ only takes values $0, 1$ without identifying it entirely.



    How might one do that?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $mu$ be the Möbius function, and let $nu(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. Then we can define $p = mu * nu$, i.e.
      $$
      p(n) = sum_{d mid m} mu(d) nu(n/d).
      $$

      An exercise in an introductory textbook I already put back on the library shelf and can't find anymore asks:




      Prove that $p$ only takes the values 0 and 1.




      The obvious solution seems to be through Möbius inversion: if we define $q(n)$ to be 1 when $n$ is prime and $0$ otherwise, then $nu = 1 * q$ so that $q = mu * nu = p$. However, the formulation of the question suggests that there is an easy way to prove that $p$ only takes values $0, 1$ without identifying it entirely.



      How might one do that?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $mu$ be the Möbius function, and let $nu(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. Then we can define $p = mu * nu$, i.e.
      $$
      p(n) = sum_{d mid m} mu(d) nu(n/d).
      $$

      An exercise in an introductory textbook I already put back on the library shelf and can't find anymore asks:




      Prove that $p$ only takes the values 0 and 1.




      The obvious solution seems to be through Möbius inversion: if we define $q(n)$ to be 1 when $n$ is prime and $0$ otherwise, then $nu = 1 * q$ so that $q = mu * nu = p$. However, the formulation of the question suggests that there is an easy way to prove that $p$ only takes values $0, 1$ without identifying it entirely.



      How might one do that?







      elementary-number-theory mobius-inversion dirichlet-convolution






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Feb 1 at 19:03









      Mees de VriesMees de Vries

      17.6k13060




      17.6k13060






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          0












          $begingroup$

          There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :



          Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.



          Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power



          Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$



          Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:07










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:08












          • $begingroup$
            But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:10










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:16










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:19












          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






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          0












          $begingroup$

          There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :



          Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.



          Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power



          Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$



          Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:07










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:08












          • $begingroup$
            But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:10










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:16










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:19
















          0












          $begingroup$

          There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :



          Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.



          Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power



          Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$



          Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:07










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:08












          • $begingroup$
            But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:10










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:16










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:19














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :



          Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.



          Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power



          Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$



          Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :



          Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.



          Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power



          Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$



          Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Feb 1 at 21:10

























          answered Feb 1 at 21:02









          reunsreuns

          20.8k21353




          20.8k21353












          • $begingroup$
            This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:07










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:08












          • $begingroup$
            But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:10










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:16










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:19


















          • $begingroup$
            This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:07










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:08












          • $begingroup$
            But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:10










          • $begingroup$
            @MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
            $endgroup$
            – reuns
            Feb 1 at 21:16










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
            $endgroup$
            – Mees de Vries
            Feb 1 at 21:19
















          $begingroup$
          This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
          $endgroup$
          – Mees de Vries
          Feb 1 at 21:07




          $begingroup$
          This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
          $endgroup$
          – Mees de Vries
          Feb 1 at 21:07












          $begingroup$
          @MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
          $endgroup$
          – reuns
          Feb 1 at 21:08






          $begingroup$
          @MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
          $endgroup$
          – reuns
          Feb 1 at 21:08














          $begingroup$
          But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
          $endgroup$
          – Mees de Vries
          Feb 1 at 21:10




          $begingroup$
          But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
          $endgroup$
          – Mees de Vries
          Feb 1 at 21:10












          $begingroup$
          @MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
          $endgroup$
          – reuns
          Feb 1 at 21:16




          $begingroup$
          @MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
          $endgroup$
          – reuns
          Feb 1 at 21:16












          $begingroup$
          Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
          $endgroup$
          – Mees de Vries
          Feb 1 at 21:19




          $begingroup$
          Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
          $endgroup$
          – Mees de Vries
          Feb 1 at 21:19


















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