Easy way to prove property of prime indicator
$begingroup$
Let $mu$ be the Möbius function, and let $nu(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. Then we can define $p = mu * nu$, i.e.
$$
p(n) = sum_{d mid m} mu(d) nu(n/d).
$$
An exercise in an introductory textbook I already put back on the library shelf and can't find anymore asks:
Prove that $p$ only takes the values 0 and 1.
The obvious solution seems to be through Möbius inversion: if we define $q(n)$ to be 1 when $n$ is prime and $0$ otherwise, then $nu = 1 * q$ so that $q = mu * nu = p$. However, the formulation of the question suggests that there is an easy way to prove that $p$ only takes values $0, 1$ without identifying it entirely.
How might one do that?
elementary-number-theory mobius-inversion dirichlet-convolution
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $mu$ be the Möbius function, and let $nu(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. Then we can define $p = mu * nu$, i.e.
$$
p(n) = sum_{d mid m} mu(d) nu(n/d).
$$
An exercise in an introductory textbook I already put back on the library shelf and can't find anymore asks:
Prove that $p$ only takes the values 0 and 1.
The obvious solution seems to be through Möbius inversion: if we define $q(n)$ to be 1 when $n$ is prime and $0$ otherwise, then $nu = 1 * q$ so that $q = mu * nu = p$. However, the formulation of the question suggests that there is an easy way to prove that $p$ only takes values $0, 1$ without identifying it entirely.
How might one do that?
elementary-number-theory mobius-inversion dirichlet-convolution
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $mu$ be the Möbius function, and let $nu(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. Then we can define $p = mu * nu$, i.e.
$$
p(n) = sum_{d mid m} mu(d) nu(n/d).
$$
An exercise in an introductory textbook I already put back on the library shelf and can't find anymore asks:
Prove that $p$ only takes the values 0 and 1.
The obvious solution seems to be through Möbius inversion: if we define $q(n)$ to be 1 when $n$ is prime and $0$ otherwise, then $nu = 1 * q$ so that $q = mu * nu = p$. However, the formulation of the question suggests that there is an easy way to prove that $p$ only takes values $0, 1$ without identifying it entirely.
How might one do that?
elementary-number-theory mobius-inversion dirichlet-convolution
$endgroup$
Let $mu$ be the Möbius function, and let $nu(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. Then we can define $p = mu * nu$, i.e.
$$
p(n) = sum_{d mid m} mu(d) nu(n/d).
$$
An exercise in an introductory textbook I already put back on the library shelf and can't find anymore asks:
Prove that $p$ only takes the values 0 and 1.
The obvious solution seems to be through Möbius inversion: if we define $q(n)$ to be 1 when $n$ is prime and $0$ otherwise, then $nu = 1 * q$ so that $q = mu * nu = p$. However, the formulation of the question suggests that there is an easy way to prove that $p$ only takes values $0, 1$ without identifying it entirely.
How might one do that?
elementary-number-theory mobius-inversion dirichlet-convolution
elementary-number-theory mobius-inversion dirichlet-convolution
asked Feb 1 at 19:03
Mees de VriesMees de Vries
17.6k13060
17.6k13060
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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$begingroup$
There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :
Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.
Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power
Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$
Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:07
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:08
$begingroup$
But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:10
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:16
$begingroup$
Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:19
add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
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votes
$begingroup$
There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :
Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.
Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power
Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$
Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:07
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:08
$begingroup$
But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:10
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:16
$begingroup$
Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :
Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.
Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power
Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$
Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:07
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:08
$begingroup$
But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:10
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:16
$begingroup$
Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :
Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.
Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power
Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$
Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$
$endgroup$
There is the generalization of your first solution, showing $mu ast f$ for additive functions is always easy to find :
Let $f(n)$ be additive that is $f(nm) =f(n)+f(m)$ for $gcd(n,m)=1$.
Let $g(p^k) = f(p^k)-f(p^{k-1})$ and $g(n) = 0$ if $n$ isn't a prime power
Then $f(n) = sum_{p^k | n} f(p^k) = sum_{p^k | n} g(p^k) = sum_{d | n} g(d)$
Whence $sum_{d | n} mu(d) f(n/d)= g(n)$
edited Feb 1 at 21:10
answered Feb 1 at 21:02
reunsreuns
20.8k21353
20.8k21353
$begingroup$
This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:07
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:08
$begingroup$
But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:10
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:16
$begingroup$
Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:07
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:08
$begingroup$
But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:10
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:16
$begingroup$
Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:19
$begingroup$
This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:07
$begingroup$
This is a nice observation, but it doesn't really answer my question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:07
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:08
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries Can you rephrase your question to make clear how it doesn't answer to it ? Your function is additive thus we can easily find the values taken by $muast f$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:08
$begingroup$
But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:10
$begingroup$
But I already know what $p$ is -- it's in the question body. I'm specifically asking for an argument that does not show what $p$ is precisely, but only demonstrates the fact that $p$ only takes the values $0, 1$ because I'm curious what the intention was of the person who set the question.
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:10
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:16
$begingroup$
@MeesdeVries I think you asked what special property of $nu$ implies $sum_{d | n} mu(d) nu(n/d) in {0,1}$ and the answer is that $nu$ is additive with $nu(p^k) - nu(p^{k-1}) in {0,1}$.
$endgroup$
– reuns
Feb 1 at 21:16
$begingroup$
Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:19
$begingroup$
Yes, but from that statement it is also immediate that $p$ is the indicator function of the primes. The question in the textbook did not ask what $mu * nu$ was, only to prove that one property. That suggests to me that there should be some easy, by-inspection method to see that $p$ should only take the values $0, 1$, without identifying the function entirely. (I could be wrong of course, but that would just mean my question has no answer.)
$endgroup$
– Mees de Vries
Feb 1 at 21:19
add a comment |
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