Formal evidence for statement involving matrices A and AB times vector x = c
$begingroup$
True or false?
If for every $mathbf{c} in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $ABmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$, then for every c $in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $Bmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$. I intuitively understand that this is correct, but I am wondering if there is a formal way to prove it.
Thank you!
linear-algebra matrices
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
True or false?
If for every $mathbf{c} in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $ABmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$, then for every c $in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $Bmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$. I intuitively understand that this is correct, but I am wondering if there is a formal way to prove it.
Thank you!
linear-algebra matrices
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
True or false?
If for every $mathbf{c} in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $ABmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$, then for every c $in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $Bmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$. I intuitively understand that this is correct, but I am wondering if there is a formal way to prove it.
Thank you!
linear-algebra matrices
$endgroup$
True or false?
If for every $mathbf{c} in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $ABmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$, then for every c $in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $Bmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$. I intuitively understand that this is correct, but I am wondering if there is a formal way to prove it.
Thank you!
linear-algebra matrices
linear-algebra matrices
asked Feb 2 at 14:12
daltadalta
1578
1578
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.
For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Feb 2 at 14:25
$begingroup$
@SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
$endgroup$
– Yuval Gat
Feb 2 at 14:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Its not correct.
Take
$$
A = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 1 & 0
end{bmatrix},
B = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix}
$$
Then
$$
AB = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1
end{bmatrix}
$$
Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
$$
Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
begin{bmatrix}
1 \
0 \
1
end{bmatrix}
$$
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add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.
For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Feb 2 at 14:25
$begingroup$
@SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
$endgroup$
– Yuval Gat
Feb 2 at 14:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.
For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Feb 2 at 14:25
$begingroup$
@SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
$endgroup$
– Yuval Gat
Feb 2 at 14:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.
For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).
$endgroup$
Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.
For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).
edited Feb 2 at 14:28
answered Feb 2 at 14:22


Yuval GatYuval Gat
9641213
9641213
$begingroup$
This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Feb 2 at 14:25
$begingroup$
@SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
$endgroup$
– Yuval Gat
Feb 2 at 14:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Feb 2 at 14:25
$begingroup$
@SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
$endgroup$
– Yuval Gat
Feb 2 at 14:27
$begingroup$
This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Feb 2 at 14:25
$begingroup$
This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
Feb 2 at 14:25
$begingroup$
@SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
$endgroup$
– Yuval Gat
Feb 2 at 14:27
$begingroup$
@SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
$endgroup$
– Yuval Gat
Feb 2 at 14:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Its not correct.
Take
$$
A = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 1 & 0
end{bmatrix},
B = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix}
$$
Then
$$
AB = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1
end{bmatrix}
$$
Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
$$
Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
begin{bmatrix}
1 \
0 \
1
end{bmatrix}
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Its not correct.
Take
$$
A = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 1 & 0
end{bmatrix},
B = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix}
$$
Then
$$
AB = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1
end{bmatrix}
$$
Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
$$
Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
begin{bmatrix}
1 \
0 \
1
end{bmatrix}
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Its not correct.
Take
$$
A = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 1 & 0
end{bmatrix},
B = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix}
$$
Then
$$
AB = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1
end{bmatrix}
$$
Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
$$
Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
begin{bmatrix}
1 \
0 \
1
end{bmatrix}
$$
$endgroup$
Its not correct.
Take
$$
A = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 1 & 0
end{bmatrix},
B = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix}
$$
Then
$$
AB = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1
end{bmatrix}
$$
Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
$$
Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
0 & 0
end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
begin{bmatrix}
1 \
0 \
1
end{bmatrix}
$$
answered Feb 2 at 14:24
Sean LeeSean Lee
828214
828214
add a comment |
add a comment |
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