Formal evidence for statement involving matrices A and AB times vector x = c












0












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True or false?



If for every $mathbf{c} in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $ABmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$, then for every c $in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $Bmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$. I intuitively understand that this is correct, but I am wondering if there is a formal way to prove it.



Thank you!










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    True or false?



    If for every $mathbf{c} in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $ABmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$, then for every c $in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $Bmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$. I intuitively understand that this is correct, but I am wondering if there is a formal way to prove it.



    Thank you!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      True or false?



      If for every $mathbf{c} in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $ABmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$, then for every c $in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $Bmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$. I intuitively understand that this is correct, but I am wondering if there is a formal way to prove it.



      Thank you!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      True or false?



      If for every $mathbf{c} in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $ABmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$, then for every c $in F^n$ there is a solution to the system $Bmathbf{x}=mathbf{c}$. I intuitively understand that this is correct, but I am wondering if there is a formal way to prove it.



      Thank you!







      linear-algebra matrices






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      asked Feb 2 at 14:12









      daltadalta

      1578




      1578






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.



          For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
            $endgroup$
            – Sean Lee
            Feb 2 at 14:25










          • $begingroup$
            @SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Gat
            Feb 2 at 14:27



















          1












          $begingroup$

          Its not correct.



          Take



          $$
          A = begin{bmatrix}
          1 & 0 & 0 \
          0 & 1 & 0
          end{bmatrix},
          B = begin{bmatrix}
          1 & 0 \
          0 & 1 \
          0 & 0
          end{bmatrix}
          $$



          Then



          $$
          AB = begin{bmatrix}
          1 & 0 \
          0 & 1
          end{bmatrix}
          $$



          Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
          $$
          Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
          1 & 0 \
          0 & 1 \
          0 & 0
          end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
          begin{bmatrix}
          1 \
          0 \
          1
          end{bmatrix}
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$














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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.



            For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              Feb 2 at 14:25










            • $begingroup$
              @SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
              $endgroup$
              – Yuval Gat
              Feb 2 at 14:27
















            2












            $begingroup$

            Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.



            For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              Feb 2 at 14:25










            • $begingroup$
              @SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
              $endgroup$
              – Yuval Gat
              Feb 2 at 14:27














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.



            For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Edit: this solution is only applicable for square matrices. See Sean Lee's counter-example with non-square matrices above.



            For a matrix $D$, the existence of a solution to $Dx=c$ for all $cin F^n$ is equivalent to invertibility of $D$ (see this - this is actually only one direction but it is the one we want). In particular, here we get that $AB$ is invertible and by this, $B$ is invertible (and so is $A$).







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Feb 2 at 14:28

























            answered Feb 2 at 14:22









            Yuval GatYuval Gat

            9641213




            9641213












            • $begingroup$
              This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              Feb 2 at 14:25










            • $begingroup$
              @SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
              $endgroup$
              – Yuval Gat
              Feb 2 at 14:27


















            • $begingroup$
              This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              Feb 2 at 14:25










            • $begingroup$
              @SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
              $endgroup$
              – Yuval Gat
              Feb 2 at 14:27
















            $begingroup$
            This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
            $endgroup$
            – Sean Lee
            Feb 2 at 14:25




            $begingroup$
            This assumes that $A$ and $B$ are square. There is no such assumption in the question, however.
            $endgroup$
            – Sean Lee
            Feb 2 at 14:25












            $begingroup$
            @SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Gat
            Feb 2 at 14:27




            $begingroup$
            @SeanLee Right. I missed that. Your solution indeed clears things up, then.
            $endgroup$
            – Yuval Gat
            Feb 2 at 14:27











            1












            $begingroup$

            Its not correct.



            Take



            $$
            A = begin{bmatrix}
            1 & 0 & 0 \
            0 & 1 & 0
            end{bmatrix},
            B = begin{bmatrix}
            1 & 0 \
            0 & 1 \
            0 & 0
            end{bmatrix}
            $$



            Then



            $$
            AB = begin{bmatrix}
            1 & 0 \
            0 & 1
            end{bmatrix}
            $$



            Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
            $$
            Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
            1 & 0 \
            0 & 1 \
            0 & 0
            end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
            begin{bmatrix}
            1 \
            0 \
            1
            end{bmatrix}
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Its not correct.



              Take



              $$
              A = begin{bmatrix}
              1 & 0 & 0 \
              0 & 1 & 0
              end{bmatrix},
              B = begin{bmatrix}
              1 & 0 \
              0 & 1 \
              0 & 0
              end{bmatrix}
              $$



              Then



              $$
              AB = begin{bmatrix}
              1 & 0 \
              0 & 1
              end{bmatrix}
              $$



              Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
              $$
              Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
              1 & 0 \
              0 & 1 \
              0 & 0
              end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
              begin{bmatrix}
              1 \
              0 \
              1
              end{bmatrix}
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Its not correct.



                Take



                $$
                A = begin{bmatrix}
                1 & 0 & 0 \
                0 & 1 & 0
                end{bmatrix},
                B = begin{bmatrix}
                1 & 0 \
                0 & 1 \
                0 & 0
                end{bmatrix}
                $$



                Then



                $$
                AB = begin{bmatrix}
                1 & 0 \
                0 & 1
                end{bmatrix}
                $$



                Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
                $$
                Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
                1 & 0 \
                0 & 1 \
                0 & 0
                end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
                begin{bmatrix}
                1 \
                0 \
                1
                end{bmatrix}
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Its not correct.



                Take



                $$
                A = begin{bmatrix}
                1 & 0 & 0 \
                0 & 1 & 0
                end{bmatrix},
                B = begin{bmatrix}
                1 & 0 \
                0 & 1 \
                0 & 0
                end{bmatrix}
                $$



                Then



                $$
                AB = begin{bmatrix}
                1 & 0 \
                0 & 1
                end{bmatrix}
                $$



                Thus there will be a solution for the system $ABbf{x} = bf{c}, forall bf{c} in F^n$ (the solution is just $ bf{x} = bf{c}$), however there will not necessarily be a solution for $B bf{x} = bf{c}$. For example, there is no solution for the following system:
                $$
                Bbf{x} = begin{bmatrix}
                1 & 0 \
                0 & 1 \
                0 & 0
                end{bmatrix} bf{x} =
                begin{bmatrix}
                1 \
                0 \
                1
                end{bmatrix}
                $$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Feb 2 at 14:24









                Sean LeeSean Lee

                828214




                828214






























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