How to prove that the series $sum n^s e^{-n} (sge 0)$ converges?












1












$begingroup$



Prove that $ sum n^s cdot e^{-n} , s ge 0$ converge.




My attempt using ratio test:



$$ frac{A_{n+1}}{A_n} = frac{(n+1)^s}{e^{n+1}} cdot frac{e^n}{n^s} = frac{(n+1)^s}{ecdot n^s} $$



But how can I proceed from here?










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As a tip: you don't need $sgeq0$ for convergence. In fact, for any $sinBbb C$, the series will converge absolutely.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Feb 2 at 17:27
















1












$begingroup$



Prove that $ sum n^s cdot e^{-n} , s ge 0$ converge.




My attempt using ratio test:



$$ frac{A_{n+1}}{A_n} = frac{(n+1)^s}{e^{n+1}} cdot frac{e^n}{n^s} = frac{(n+1)^s}{ecdot n^s} $$



But how can I proceed from here?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As a tip: you don't need $sgeq0$ for convergence. In fact, for any $sinBbb C$, the series will converge absolutely.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Feb 2 at 17:27














1












1








1





$begingroup$



Prove that $ sum n^s cdot e^{-n} , s ge 0$ converge.




My attempt using ratio test:



$$ frac{A_{n+1}}{A_n} = frac{(n+1)^s}{e^{n+1}} cdot frac{e^n}{n^s} = frac{(n+1)^s}{ecdot n^s} $$



But how can I proceed from here?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Prove that $ sum n^s cdot e^{-n} , s ge 0$ converge.




My attempt using ratio test:



$$ frac{A_{n+1}}{A_n} = frac{(n+1)^s}{e^{n+1}} cdot frac{e^n}{n^s} = frac{(n+1)^s}{ecdot n^s} $$



But how can I proceed from here?







calculus sequences-and-series limits






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edited Feb 2 at 17:33







user587192

















asked Feb 2 at 17:11









bm1125bm1125

69116




69116








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As a tip: you don't need $sgeq0$ for convergence. In fact, for any $sinBbb C$, the series will converge absolutely.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Feb 2 at 17:27














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    As a tip: you don't need $sgeq0$ for convergence. In fact, for any $sinBbb C$, the series will converge absolutely.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Feb 2 at 17:27








2




2




$begingroup$
As a tip: you don't need $sgeq0$ for convergence. In fact, for any $sinBbb C$, the series will converge absolutely.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Feb 2 at 17:27




$begingroup$
As a tip: you don't need $sgeq0$ for convergence. In fact, for any $sinBbb C$, the series will converge absolutely.
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Feb 2 at 17:27










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Rewrite $$frac{(n+1)^s}{e cdot n^s}$$ as $$left(frac{n+1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$



If you need the next step, divide the top and bottom of the fraction by n to get



$$left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks but actually Im still not sure how it is converge. I understand that the expression $ frac{n+1}{n}^s $ approaches $ e $ when $ n rightarrow infty $ but that doesn't prove that the original series converge. ?
    $endgroup$
    – bm1125
    Feb 2 at 17:22








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @bm1125 The whole thing approaches 1/e < 1, not e, so it converges absolutely. The (n+1)/n part converges to just 1, because (n+1)/n = 1 + 1/n
    $endgroup$
    – Keatinge
    Feb 2 at 17:24












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for clarification!!
    $endgroup$
    – bm1125
    Feb 2 at 17:30



















4












$begingroup$

Hint The root test is more obvious here:
$$lim_n sqrt[n]{n^s cdot e^{-n}}= lim_n (sqrt[n]{n})^s e^{-1}= 1^s cdot e^{-1}=frac{1}{e}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    Since $n^{1/n} to 1$,
    for fixed $s$,
    $n^{s/n} to 1$
    so
    $n^{s/n} < 2$
    for all large enough $n$.
    Therefore



    $begin{array}\
    n^se^{-n}
    &=(n^{s/n})^{n}e^{-n}\
    &=(frac{n^{s/n}}{e})^n\
    &<(frac{2}{e})^n
    qquadtext{for all large enough } n\
    end{array}
    $



    and the sum of these converges.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      We can also use the Cauchy's convergence test. This test tells us that a serie $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k$ is convergent if, and only if, for all $epsilon>0$ there is a $N_epsiloninmathbb{N}-{0}$ such that
      $$
      n> N_epsilon implies | a_{k+1}+a_{k+2}+ldots+a_{k+p}|<epsilon quad forall pinmathbb{N}
      $$

      Note that
      begin{align}
      left|
      (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
      right|
      =&
      sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+ell)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
      \
      leq&
      sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
      \
      leq&
      sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-n}
      \
      =&
      p(n+p)^s e^{-n}
      \
      =&
      frac{n^s}{e^n}
      cdot
      underbrace{
      p(1+p/n)^s
      }_{mathrm{limited}}
      end{align}

      Choose $ N_{p,s}inmathbb{N}$ big enough so that $n> N_{p,s}$ implies $(1+p/n)^s<2$. Then $n>N_{p,s}$ implies
      begin{align}
      left|
      (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
      right|
      leq &
      frac{2pn^s}{e^n}
      end{align}

      For an arbitrary $ epsilon> 0 $ we can choose a large enough $ N_{p,s,epsilon} $ such that $n>N_{p,s,epsilon}$ implies $$frac{2pn^s}{e^n}<epsilon.$$ Choose $N_{epsilon}=max{N_{p,s,epsilon},N_{s,p}}$. Therefore, the convergence of the series follows .






      share|cite|improve this answer











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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        5












        $begingroup$

        Rewrite $$frac{(n+1)^s}{e cdot n^s}$$ as $$left(frac{n+1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$



        If you need the next step, divide the top and bottom of the fraction by n to get



        $$left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          Thanks but actually Im still not sure how it is converge. I understand that the expression $ frac{n+1}{n}^s $ approaches $ e $ when $ n rightarrow infty $ but that doesn't prove that the original series converge. ?
          $endgroup$
          – bm1125
          Feb 2 at 17:22








        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @bm1125 The whole thing approaches 1/e < 1, not e, so it converges absolutely. The (n+1)/n part converges to just 1, because (n+1)/n = 1 + 1/n
          $endgroup$
          – Keatinge
          Feb 2 at 17:24












        • $begingroup$
          Thanks for clarification!!
          $endgroup$
          – bm1125
          Feb 2 at 17:30
















        5












        $begingroup$

        Rewrite $$frac{(n+1)^s}{e cdot n^s}$$ as $$left(frac{n+1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$



        If you need the next step, divide the top and bottom of the fraction by n to get



        $$left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          Thanks but actually Im still not sure how it is converge. I understand that the expression $ frac{n+1}{n}^s $ approaches $ e $ when $ n rightarrow infty $ but that doesn't prove that the original series converge. ?
          $endgroup$
          – bm1125
          Feb 2 at 17:22








        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @bm1125 The whole thing approaches 1/e < 1, not e, so it converges absolutely. The (n+1)/n part converges to just 1, because (n+1)/n = 1 + 1/n
          $endgroup$
          – Keatinge
          Feb 2 at 17:24












        • $begingroup$
          Thanks for clarification!!
          $endgroup$
          – bm1125
          Feb 2 at 17:30














        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        Rewrite $$frac{(n+1)^s}{e cdot n^s}$$ as $$left(frac{n+1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$



        If you need the next step, divide the top and bottom of the fraction by n to get



        $$left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Rewrite $$frac{(n+1)^s}{e cdot n^s}$$ as $$left(frac{n+1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$



        If you need the next step, divide the top and bottom of the fraction by n to get



        $$left(1+frac{1}{n}right)^s cdot frac{1}{e}$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Feb 2 at 17:27

























        answered Feb 2 at 17:14









        KeatingeKeatinge

        23228




        23228












        • $begingroup$
          Thanks but actually Im still not sure how it is converge. I understand that the expression $ frac{n+1}{n}^s $ approaches $ e $ when $ n rightarrow infty $ but that doesn't prove that the original series converge. ?
          $endgroup$
          – bm1125
          Feb 2 at 17:22








        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @bm1125 The whole thing approaches 1/e < 1, not e, so it converges absolutely. The (n+1)/n part converges to just 1, because (n+1)/n = 1 + 1/n
          $endgroup$
          – Keatinge
          Feb 2 at 17:24












        • $begingroup$
          Thanks for clarification!!
          $endgroup$
          – bm1125
          Feb 2 at 17:30


















        • $begingroup$
          Thanks but actually Im still not sure how it is converge. I understand that the expression $ frac{n+1}{n}^s $ approaches $ e $ when $ n rightarrow infty $ but that doesn't prove that the original series converge. ?
          $endgroup$
          – bm1125
          Feb 2 at 17:22








        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @bm1125 The whole thing approaches 1/e < 1, not e, so it converges absolutely. The (n+1)/n part converges to just 1, because (n+1)/n = 1 + 1/n
          $endgroup$
          – Keatinge
          Feb 2 at 17:24












        • $begingroup$
          Thanks for clarification!!
          $endgroup$
          – bm1125
          Feb 2 at 17:30
















        $begingroup$
        Thanks but actually Im still not sure how it is converge. I understand that the expression $ frac{n+1}{n}^s $ approaches $ e $ when $ n rightarrow infty $ but that doesn't prove that the original series converge. ?
        $endgroup$
        – bm1125
        Feb 2 at 17:22






        $begingroup$
        Thanks but actually Im still not sure how it is converge. I understand that the expression $ frac{n+1}{n}^s $ approaches $ e $ when $ n rightarrow infty $ but that doesn't prove that the original series converge. ?
        $endgroup$
        – bm1125
        Feb 2 at 17:22






        2




        2




        $begingroup$
        @bm1125 The whole thing approaches 1/e < 1, not e, so it converges absolutely. The (n+1)/n part converges to just 1, because (n+1)/n = 1 + 1/n
        $endgroup$
        – Keatinge
        Feb 2 at 17:24






        $begingroup$
        @bm1125 The whole thing approaches 1/e < 1, not e, so it converges absolutely. The (n+1)/n part converges to just 1, because (n+1)/n = 1 + 1/n
        $endgroup$
        – Keatinge
        Feb 2 at 17:24














        $begingroup$
        Thanks for clarification!!
        $endgroup$
        – bm1125
        Feb 2 at 17:30




        $begingroup$
        Thanks for clarification!!
        $endgroup$
        – bm1125
        Feb 2 at 17:30











        4












        $begingroup$

        Hint The root test is more obvious here:
        $$lim_n sqrt[n]{n^s cdot e^{-n}}= lim_n (sqrt[n]{n})^s e^{-1}= 1^s cdot e^{-1}=frac{1}{e}$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$


















          4












          $begingroup$

          Hint The root test is more obvious here:
          $$lim_n sqrt[n]{n^s cdot e^{-n}}= lim_n (sqrt[n]{n})^s e^{-1}= 1^s cdot e^{-1}=frac{1}{e}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$
















            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            Hint The root test is more obvious here:
            $$lim_n sqrt[n]{n^s cdot e^{-n}}= lim_n (sqrt[n]{n})^s e^{-1}= 1^s cdot e^{-1}=frac{1}{e}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Hint The root test is more obvious here:
            $$lim_n sqrt[n]{n^s cdot e^{-n}}= lim_n (sqrt[n]{n})^s e^{-1}= 1^s cdot e^{-1}=frac{1}{e}$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Feb 2 at 17:40









            N. S.N. S.

            105k7115210




            105k7115210























                2












                $begingroup$

                Since $n^{1/n} to 1$,
                for fixed $s$,
                $n^{s/n} to 1$
                so
                $n^{s/n} < 2$
                for all large enough $n$.
                Therefore



                $begin{array}\
                n^se^{-n}
                &=(n^{s/n})^{n}e^{-n}\
                &=(frac{n^{s/n}}{e})^n\
                &<(frac{2}{e})^n
                qquadtext{for all large enough } n\
                end{array}
                $



                and the sum of these converges.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  Since $n^{1/n} to 1$,
                  for fixed $s$,
                  $n^{s/n} to 1$
                  so
                  $n^{s/n} < 2$
                  for all large enough $n$.
                  Therefore



                  $begin{array}\
                  n^se^{-n}
                  &=(n^{s/n})^{n}e^{-n}\
                  &=(frac{n^{s/n}}{e})^n\
                  &<(frac{2}{e})^n
                  qquadtext{for all large enough } n\
                  end{array}
                  $



                  and the sum of these converges.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    Since $n^{1/n} to 1$,
                    for fixed $s$,
                    $n^{s/n} to 1$
                    so
                    $n^{s/n} < 2$
                    for all large enough $n$.
                    Therefore



                    $begin{array}\
                    n^se^{-n}
                    &=(n^{s/n})^{n}e^{-n}\
                    &=(frac{n^{s/n}}{e})^n\
                    &<(frac{2}{e})^n
                    qquadtext{for all large enough } n\
                    end{array}
                    $



                    and the sum of these converges.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Since $n^{1/n} to 1$,
                    for fixed $s$,
                    $n^{s/n} to 1$
                    so
                    $n^{s/n} < 2$
                    for all large enough $n$.
                    Therefore



                    $begin{array}\
                    n^se^{-n}
                    &=(n^{s/n})^{n}e^{-n}\
                    &=(frac{n^{s/n}}{e})^n\
                    &<(frac{2}{e})^n
                    qquadtext{for all large enough } n\
                    end{array}
                    $



                    and the sum of these converges.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Feb 2 at 18:01









                    marty cohenmarty cohen

                    75.6k549130




                    75.6k549130























                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        We can also use the Cauchy's convergence test. This test tells us that a serie $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k$ is convergent if, and only if, for all $epsilon>0$ there is a $N_epsiloninmathbb{N}-{0}$ such that
                        $$
                        n> N_epsilon implies | a_{k+1}+a_{k+2}+ldots+a_{k+p}|<epsilon quad forall pinmathbb{N}
                        $$

                        Note that
                        begin{align}
                        left|
                        (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
                        right|
                        =&
                        sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+ell)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
                        \
                        leq&
                        sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
                        \
                        leq&
                        sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-n}
                        \
                        =&
                        p(n+p)^s e^{-n}
                        \
                        =&
                        frac{n^s}{e^n}
                        cdot
                        underbrace{
                        p(1+p/n)^s
                        }_{mathrm{limited}}
                        end{align}

                        Choose $ N_{p,s}inmathbb{N}$ big enough so that $n> N_{p,s}$ implies $(1+p/n)^s<2$. Then $n>N_{p,s}$ implies
                        begin{align}
                        left|
                        (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
                        right|
                        leq &
                        frac{2pn^s}{e^n}
                        end{align}

                        For an arbitrary $ epsilon> 0 $ we can choose a large enough $ N_{p,s,epsilon} $ such that $n>N_{p,s,epsilon}$ implies $$frac{2pn^s}{e^n}<epsilon.$$ Choose $N_{epsilon}=max{N_{p,s,epsilon},N_{s,p}}$. Therefore, the convergence of the series follows .






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$


















                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          We can also use the Cauchy's convergence test. This test tells us that a serie $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k$ is convergent if, and only if, for all $epsilon>0$ there is a $N_epsiloninmathbb{N}-{0}$ such that
                          $$
                          n> N_epsilon implies | a_{k+1}+a_{k+2}+ldots+a_{k+p}|<epsilon quad forall pinmathbb{N}
                          $$

                          Note that
                          begin{align}
                          left|
                          (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
                          right|
                          =&
                          sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+ell)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
                          \
                          leq&
                          sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
                          \
                          leq&
                          sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-n}
                          \
                          =&
                          p(n+p)^s e^{-n}
                          \
                          =&
                          frac{n^s}{e^n}
                          cdot
                          underbrace{
                          p(1+p/n)^s
                          }_{mathrm{limited}}
                          end{align}

                          Choose $ N_{p,s}inmathbb{N}$ big enough so that $n> N_{p,s}$ implies $(1+p/n)^s<2$. Then $n>N_{p,s}$ implies
                          begin{align}
                          left|
                          (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
                          right|
                          leq &
                          frac{2pn^s}{e^n}
                          end{align}

                          For an arbitrary $ epsilon> 0 $ we can choose a large enough $ N_{p,s,epsilon} $ such that $n>N_{p,s,epsilon}$ implies $$frac{2pn^s}{e^n}<epsilon.$$ Choose $N_{epsilon}=max{N_{p,s,epsilon},N_{s,p}}$. Therefore, the convergence of the series follows .






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$
















                            1












                            1








                            1





                            $begingroup$

                            We can also use the Cauchy's convergence test. This test tells us that a serie $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k$ is convergent if, and only if, for all $epsilon>0$ there is a $N_epsiloninmathbb{N}-{0}$ such that
                            $$
                            n> N_epsilon implies | a_{k+1}+a_{k+2}+ldots+a_{k+p}|<epsilon quad forall pinmathbb{N}
                            $$

                            Note that
                            begin{align}
                            left|
                            (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
                            right|
                            =&
                            sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+ell)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
                            \
                            leq&
                            sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
                            \
                            leq&
                            sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-n}
                            \
                            =&
                            p(n+p)^s e^{-n}
                            \
                            =&
                            frac{n^s}{e^n}
                            cdot
                            underbrace{
                            p(1+p/n)^s
                            }_{mathrm{limited}}
                            end{align}

                            Choose $ N_{p,s}inmathbb{N}$ big enough so that $n> N_{p,s}$ implies $(1+p/n)^s<2$. Then $n>N_{p,s}$ implies
                            begin{align}
                            left|
                            (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
                            right|
                            leq &
                            frac{2pn^s}{e^n}
                            end{align}

                            For an arbitrary $ epsilon> 0 $ we can choose a large enough $ N_{p,s,epsilon} $ such that $n>N_{p,s,epsilon}$ implies $$frac{2pn^s}{e^n}<epsilon.$$ Choose $N_{epsilon}=max{N_{p,s,epsilon},N_{s,p}}$. Therefore, the convergence of the series follows .






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            We can also use the Cauchy's convergence test. This test tells us that a serie $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k$ is convergent if, and only if, for all $epsilon>0$ there is a $N_epsiloninmathbb{N}-{0}$ such that
                            $$
                            n> N_epsilon implies | a_{k+1}+a_{k+2}+ldots+a_{k+p}|<epsilon quad forall pinmathbb{N}
                            $$

                            Note that
                            begin{align}
                            left|
                            (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
                            right|
                            =&
                            sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+ell)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
                            \
                            leq&
                            sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-(n+ell)}
                            \
                            leq&
                            sum_{ell=1}^{p}(n+p)^s e^{-n}
                            \
                            =&
                            p(n+p)^s e^{-n}
                            \
                            =&
                            frac{n^s}{e^n}
                            cdot
                            underbrace{
                            p(1+p/n)^s
                            }_{mathrm{limited}}
                            end{align}

                            Choose $ N_{p,s}inmathbb{N}$ big enough so that $n> N_{p,s}$ implies $(1+p/n)^s<2$. Then $n>N_{p,s}$ implies
                            begin{align}
                            left|
                            (n+1)^s e^{-(n+1)}+cdots+(n+p)^s e^{-(n+p)}
                            right|
                            leq &
                            frac{2pn^s}{e^n}
                            end{align}

                            For an arbitrary $ epsilon> 0 $ we can choose a large enough $ N_{p,s,epsilon} $ such that $n>N_{p,s,epsilon}$ implies $$frac{2pn^s}{e^n}<epsilon.$$ Choose $N_{epsilon}=max{N_{p,s,epsilon},N_{s,p}}$. Therefore, the convergence of the series follows .







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                            edited Feb 2 at 18:47

























                            answered Feb 2 at 18:40









                            MathOverviewMathOverview

                            8,95743164




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