If $E[X]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_X(t)-F_X(-t))dt$ then why $E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t))dt$












0












$begingroup$


I know that from definition: $E[X]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_X(t)-F_X(-t))dt$



But I encountered the following claim:
$E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t))dt$



Why isn't it the same as above? hence:



$E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t)-F_{X^2}(-t))dt$










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The last expression should read $E[X^color{red}{2}]=...$
    $endgroup$
    – Math-fun
    Feb 1 at 8:43
















0












$begingroup$


I know that from definition: $E[X]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_X(t)-F_X(-t))dt$



But I encountered the following claim:
$E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t))dt$



Why isn't it the same as above? hence:



$E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t)-F_{X^2}(-t))dt$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The last expression should read $E[X^color{red}{2}]=...$
    $endgroup$
    – Math-fun
    Feb 1 at 8:43














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I know that from definition: $E[X]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_X(t)-F_X(-t))dt$



But I encountered the following claim:
$E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t))dt$



Why isn't it the same as above? hence:



$E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t)-F_{X^2}(-t))dt$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know that from definition: $E[X]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_X(t)-F_X(-t))dt$



But I encountered the following claim:
$E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t))dt$



Why isn't it the same as above? hence:



$E[X^2]=int_{0}^{infty}(1-F_{X^2}(t)-F_{X^2}(-t))dt$







probability expected-value






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edited Feb 1 at 9:27







superuser123

















asked Feb 1 at 8:37









superuser123superuser123

48628




48628












  • $begingroup$
    The last expression should read $E[X^color{red}{2}]=...$
    $endgroup$
    – Math-fun
    Feb 1 at 8:43


















  • $begingroup$
    The last expression should read $E[X^color{red}{2}]=...$
    $endgroup$
    – Math-fun
    Feb 1 at 8:43
















$begingroup$
The last expression should read $E[X^color{red}{2}]=...$
$endgroup$
– Math-fun
Feb 1 at 8:43




$begingroup$
The last expression should read $E[X^color{red}{2}]=...$
$endgroup$
– Math-fun
Feb 1 at 8:43










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$begingroup$

They are actually the same, but because $X^2$ is always non negative $F_{X^2}(-t)=0$ and the expression simplifies to the one given.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    active

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    active

    oldest

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    1












    $begingroup$

    They are actually the same, but because $X^2$ is always non negative $F_{X^2}(-t)=0$ and the expression simplifies to the one given.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      They are actually the same, but because $X^2$ is always non negative $F_{X^2}(-t)=0$ and the expression simplifies to the one given.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        They are actually the same, but because $X^2$ is always non negative $F_{X^2}(-t)=0$ and the expression simplifies to the one given.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        They are actually the same, but because $X^2$ is always non negative $F_{X^2}(-t)=0$ and the expression simplifies to the one given.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Feb 1 at 8:40









        b00n heTb00n heT

        10.5k12335




        10.5k12335






























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