Rigorously prove If $A setminus B = A$, then $A cap B = emptyset$












1












$begingroup$


Rigorously prove: If $Asetminus B = A$, then $A cap B = emptyset$.



Logically it makes sense i.e. since if $Asetminus B$ is equal to $A$, then $B$ must be the empty set hence $A cap B$ must be equal to the empty set since anything intersected with the empty set is the empty set.



My main question is how I can go about this to prove it formally, i.e 'mathematically/rigorously'



My attempt:



$left(A setminus B right) subseteq A$ (1)



$A$ is a subset of $A$ hence also a subset of $left(A setminus B right)$



So:



$A subseteq left(A setminus B right)$ (2)



Combining (1) and (2) we are allowed to conclude that:



$ left(A setminus B right) = A$



Hence since $ left(A setminus B right) = A$, then $B = emptyset$ then rtp that $A cap B = emptyset$



$A cap B$



$(x in A land x in B)$



$(x in A land x in emptyset)$



$x in emptyset$



Thanks in Advance










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Maths SX! You mean $Asmallsetminus B$, not $A/B$, I suppose?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Feb 1 at 12:29










  • $begingroup$
    Apparently so (according to everyone on this forum) ... however this is how it is written on the textbook I'm using
    $endgroup$
    – xalalau
    Feb 1 at 12:41










  • $begingroup$
    What textbook is that?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Feb 1 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    Note that $A cap B$ and $A setminus B$ are two disjoint subsets of $A$.
    $endgroup$
    – Solomonoff's Secret
    Feb 1 at 12:44
















1












$begingroup$


Rigorously prove: If $Asetminus B = A$, then $A cap B = emptyset$.



Logically it makes sense i.e. since if $Asetminus B$ is equal to $A$, then $B$ must be the empty set hence $A cap B$ must be equal to the empty set since anything intersected with the empty set is the empty set.



My main question is how I can go about this to prove it formally, i.e 'mathematically/rigorously'



My attempt:



$left(A setminus B right) subseteq A$ (1)



$A$ is a subset of $A$ hence also a subset of $left(A setminus B right)$



So:



$A subseteq left(A setminus B right)$ (2)



Combining (1) and (2) we are allowed to conclude that:



$ left(A setminus B right) = A$



Hence since $ left(A setminus B right) = A$, then $B = emptyset$ then rtp that $A cap B = emptyset$



$A cap B$



$(x in A land x in B)$



$(x in A land x in emptyset)$



$x in emptyset$



Thanks in Advance










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Maths SX! You mean $Asmallsetminus B$, not $A/B$, I suppose?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Feb 1 at 12:29










  • $begingroup$
    Apparently so (according to everyone on this forum) ... however this is how it is written on the textbook I'm using
    $endgroup$
    – xalalau
    Feb 1 at 12:41










  • $begingroup$
    What textbook is that?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Feb 1 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    Note that $A cap B$ and $A setminus B$ are two disjoint subsets of $A$.
    $endgroup$
    – Solomonoff's Secret
    Feb 1 at 12:44














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Rigorously prove: If $Asetminus B = A$, then $A cap B = emptyset$.



Logically it makes sense i.e. since if $Asetminus B$ is equal to $A$, then $B$ must be the empty set hence $A cap B$ must be equal to the empty set since anything intersected with the empty set is the empty set.



My main question is how I can go about this to prove it formally, i.e 'mathematically/rigorously'



My attempt:



$left(A setminus B right) subseteq A$ (1)



$A$ is a subset of $A$ hence also a subset of $left(A setminus B right)$



So:



$A subseteq left(A setminus B right)$ (2)



Combining (1) and (2) we are allowed to conclude that:



$ left(A setminus B right) = A$



Hence since $ left(A setminus B right) = A$, then $B = emptyset$ then rtp that $A cap B = emptyset$



$A cap B$



$(x in A land x in B)$



$(x in A land x in emptyset)$



$x in emptyset$



Thanks in Advance










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Rigorously prove: If $Asetminus B = A$, then $A cap B = emptyset$.



Logically it makes sense i.e. since if $Asetminus B$ is equal to $A$, then $B$ must be the empty set hence $A cap B$ must be equal to the empty set since anything intersected with the empty set is the empty set.



My main question is how I can go about this to prove it formally, i.e 'mathematically/rigorously'



My attempt:



$left(A setminus B right) subseteq A$ (1)



$A$ is a subset of $A$ hence also a subset of $left(A setminus B right)$



So:



$A subseteq left(A setminus B right)$ (2)



Combining (1) and (2) we are allowed to conclude that:



$ left(A setminus B right) = A$



Hence since $ left(A setminus B right) = A$, then $B = emptyset$ then rtp that $A cap B = emptyset$



$A cap B$



$(x in A land x in B)$



$(x in A land x in emptyset)$



$x in emptyset$



Thanks in Advance







discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory






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edited Feb 2 at 10:34









Henno Brandsma

116k349127




116k349127










asked Feb 1 at 12:23









xalalauxalalau

154




154












  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Maths SX! You mean $Asmallsetminus B$, not $A/B$, I suppose?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Feb 1 at 12:29










  • $begingroup$
    Apparently so (according to everyone on this forum) ... however this is how it is written on the textbook I'm using
    $endgroup$
    – xalalau
    Feb 1 at 12:41










  • $begingroup$
    What textbook is that?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Feb 1 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    Note that $A cap B$ and $A setminus B$ are two disjoint subsets of $A$.
    $endgroup$
    – Solomonoff's Secret
    Feb 1 at 12:44


















  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Maths SX! You mean $Asmallsetminus B$, not $A/B$, I suppose?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Feb 1 at 12:29










  • $begingroup$
    Apparently so (according to everyone on this forum) ... however this is how it is written on the textbook I'm using
    $endgroup$
    – xalalau
    Feb 1 at 12:41










  • $begingroup$
    What textbook is that?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Feb 1 at 12:42










  • $begingroup$
    Note that $A cap B$ and $A setminus B$ are two disjoint subsets of $A$.
    $endgroup$
    – Solomonoff's Secret
    Feb 1 at 12:44
















$begingroup$
Welcome to Maths SX! You mean $Asmallsetminus B$, not $A/B$, I suppose?
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Feb 1 at 12:29




$begingroup$
Welcome to Maths SX! You mean $Asmallsetminus B$, not $A/B$, I suppose?
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Feb 1 at 12:29












$begingroup$
Apparently so (according to everyone on this forum) ... however this is how it is written on the textbook I'm using
$endgroup$
– xalalau
Feb 1 at 12:41




$begingroup$
Apparently so (according to everyone on this forum) ... however this is how it is written on the textbook I'm using
$endgroup$
– xalalau
Feb 1 at 12:41












$begingroup$
What textbook is that?
$endgroup$
– bof
Feb 1 at 12:42




$begingroup$
What textbook is that?
$endgroup$
– bof
Feb 1 at 12:42












$begingroup$
Note that $A cap B$ and $A setminus B$ are two disjoint subsets of $A$.
$endgroup$
– Solomonoff's Secret
Feb 1 at 12:44




$begingroup$
Note that $A cap B$ and $A setminus B$ are two disjoint subsets of $A$.
$endgroup$
– Solomonoff's Secret
Feb 1 at 12:44










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$


" Hence since $Asetminus B = A$, then $B = varnothing$ then rtp that $Acap B=varnothing$"




Nowhere we reach the conclusion that $B=varnothing$.





This is a way to do it:



Assume that $xin Acap B$.



Then $xin A=Asetminus B$ and $xin B$.



Then $xnotin B$ and $xin B$ so a contradiction is found.



We conclude that the assumption $xin Acap B$ is false, and this for every $x$.



That means exactly that $Acap B$ is empty.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Note that it is always true that



    $$A setminus B = A cap B^C$$



    Hence, if $A setminus B =A$, then $A cap B^C =A$, and so:



    $$Acap B= (A cap B^C) cap B= A cap (B^C cap B)=A cap emptyset=emptyset$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      A correct proof is sketched in the other answer. To answer your question about whether your reasoning is correct: Not really. You're trying to show that if $Asetminus B=A$ then $cap B=emptyset$. So $Asetminus B=A$ is given. Hence a line saying "we may conclude $Asetminus B=A$ makes very little sense.



      Not that it matters, since you're given that $Asetminus B=A$, but your proof of this fact is also wrong. You state that $A$ is a subset of $Asetminus B$, but that's not true in general.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$





















        1












        $begingroup$

        Suppose $xin Acap B$. Then $xin A$ and $xin B$. But then $xnotin Asetminus B$. Since $Asetminus B=A$, this leads to a contradiction. Done.






        share|cite|improve this answer









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          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes








          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$


          " Hence since $Asetminus B = A$, then $B = varnothing$ then rtp that $Acap B=varnothing$"




          Nowhere we reach the conclusion that $B=varnothing$.





          This is a way to do it:



          Assume that $xin Acap B$.



          Then $xin A=Asetminus B$ and $xin B$.



          Then $xnotin B$ and $xin B$ so a contradiction is found.



          We conclude that the assumption $xin Acap B$ is false, and this for every $x$.



          That means exactly that $Acap B$ is empty.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$


















            2












            $begingroup$


            " Hence since $Asetminus B = A$, then $B = varnothing$ then rtp that $Acap B=varnothing$"




            Nowhere we reach the conclusion that $B=varnothing$.





            This is a way to do it:



            Assume that $xin Acap B$.



            Then $xin A=Asetminus B$ and $xin B$.



            Then $xnotin B$ and $xin B$ so a contradiction is found.



            We conclude that the assumption $xin Acap B$ is false, and this for every $x$.



            That means exactly that $Acap B$ is empty.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$
















              2












              2








              2





              $begingroup$


              " Hence since $Asetminus B = A$, then $B = varnothing$ then rtp that $Acap B=varnothing$"




              Nowhere we reach the conclusion that $B=varnothing$.





              This is a way to do it:



              Assume that $xin Acap B$.



              Then $xin A=Asetminus B$ and $xin B$.



              Then $xnotin B$ and $xin B$ so a contradiction is found.



              We conclude that the assumption $xin Acap B$ is false, and this for every $x$.



              That means exactly that $Acap B$ is empty.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$




              " Hence since $Asetminus B = A$, then $B = varnothing$ then rtp that $Acap B=varnothing$"




              Nowhere we reach the conclusion that $B=varnothing$.





              This is a way to do it:



              Assume that $xin Acap B$.



              Then $xin A=Asetminus B$ and $xin B$.



              Then $xnotin B$ and $xin B$ so a contradiction is found.



              We conclude that the assumption $xin Acap B$ is false, and this for every $x$.



              That means exactly that $Acap B$ is empty.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Feb 1 at 12:34









              drhabdrhab

              104k545136




              104k545136























                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  Note that it is always true that



                  $$A setminus B = A cap B^C$$



                  Hence, if $A setminus B =A$, then $A cap B^C =A$, and so:



                  $$Acap B= (A cap B^C) cap B= A cap (B^C cap B)=A cap emptyset=emptyset$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$


















                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    Note that it is always true that



                    $$A setminus B = A cap B^C$$



                    Hence, if $A setminus B =A$, then $A cap B^C =A$, and so:



                    $$Acap B= (A cap B^C) cap B= A cap (B^C cap B)=A cap emptyset=emptyset$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$
















                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      Note that it is always true that



                      $$A setminus B = A cap B^C$$



                      Hence, if $A setminus B =A$, then $A cap B^C =A$, and so:



                      $$Acap B= (A cap B^C) cap B= A cap (B^C cap B)=A cap emptyset=emptyset$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      Note that it is always true that



                      $$A setminus B = A cap B^C$$



                      Hence, if $A setminus B =A$, then $A cap B^C =A$, and so:



                      $$Acap B= (A cap B^C) cap B= A cap (B^C cap B)=A cap emptyset=emptyset$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Feb 1 at 12:54









                      Bram28Bram28

                      64.4k44793




                      64.4k44793























                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          A correct proof is sketched in the other answer. To answer your question about whether your reasoning is correct: Not really. You're trying to show that if $Asetminus B=A$ then $cap B=emptyset$. So $Asetminus B=A$ is given. Hence a line saying "we may conclude $Asetminus B=A$ makes very little sense.



                          Not that it matters, since you're given that $Asetminus B=A$, but your proof of this fact is also wrong. You state that $A$ is a subset of $Asetminus B$, but that's not true in general.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$


















                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            A correct proof is sketched in the other answer. To answer your question about whether your reasoning is correct: Not really. You're trying to show that if $Asetminus B=A$ then $cap B=emptyset$. So $Asetminus B=A$ is given. Hence a line saying "we may conclude $Asetminus B=A$ makes very little sense.



                            Not that it matters, since you're given that $Asetminus B=A$, but your proof of this fact is also wrong. You state that $A$ is a subset of $Asetminus B$, but that's not true in general.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$
















                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              A correct proof is sketched in the other answer. To answer your question about whether your reasoning is correct: Not really. You're trying to show that if $Asetminus B=A$ then $cap B=emptyset$. So $Asetminus B=A$ is given. Hence a line saying "we may conclude $Asetminus B=A$ makes very little sense.



                              Not that it matters, since you're given that $Asetminus B=A$, but your proof of this fact is also wrong. You state that $A$ is a subset of $Asetminus B$, but that's not true in general.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              A correct proof is sketched in the other answer. To answer your question about whether your reasoning is correct: Not really. You're trying to show that if $Asetminus B=A$ then $cap B=emptyset$. So $Asetminus B=A$ is given. Hence a line saying "we may conclude $Asetminus B=A$ makes very little sense.



                              Not that it matters, since you're given that $Asetminus B=A$, but your proof of this fact is also wrong. You state that $A$ is a subset of $Asetminus B$, but that's not true in general.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Feb 1 at 12:56









                              David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

                              61.7k44095




                              61.7k44095























                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Suppose $xin Acap B$. Then $xin A$ and $xin B$. But then $xnotin Asetminus B$. Since $Asetminus B=A$, this leads to a contradiction. Done.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Suppose $xin Acap B$. Then $xin A$ and $xin B$. But then $xnotin Asetminus B$. Since $Asetminus B=A$, this leads to a contradiction. Done.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      1












                                      1








                                      1





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Suppose $xin Acap B$. Then $xin A$ and $xin B$. But then $xnotin Asetminus B$. Since $Asetminus B=A$, this leads to a contradiction. Done.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      Suppose $xin Acap B$. Then $xin A$ and $xin B$. But then $xnotin Asetminus B$. Since $Asetminus B=A$, this leads to a contradiction. Done.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Feb 1 at 13:02









                                      WuestenfuxWuestenfux

                                      5,5131513




                                      5,5131513






























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