Prove that a continuous function on a closed interval attains a maximum












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As the title indicates, I'd like to prove the following:




If $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ is a continuous function on $[a,b]$, then $f$ attains its maximum.




Now, I do have a working proof: $[a,b]$ is a connected, compact space, which means that because $f$ is continuous, $f([a,b])$ is compact and connected as well. Therefore, $f([a,b])$ is a closed interval, which means it has both a minimum and, as desired, a maximum.



What I would like, however, is a proof that doesn't require such general or sophisticated framework. In particular, I'd like to know if there's a proof that is understandable to somebody beginning calculus, one that (at the very least) doesn't invoke compactness. Any comments, hints, or solutions are welcome and apreciated.










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  • $begingroup$
    It seems that I've made the mistake of not checking wikipedia first. This page has a nice proof along the same lines of some of these answerers: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jul 7 '13 at 13:11










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    Note, this problem is badly formed - you define the domain of $f$ as $mathbb R$ and then ask about a maximum. What you want is the maximum on $[a,b]$
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Nov 29 '13 at 20:38










  • $begingroup$
    Is their anything around for if a function is continuous on [a,b] attains a min value on [a,b]. I know how to prove it using sequences and compact sets. I need a third way to go about it. Any suggestions?
    $endgroup$
    – OLE
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:20










  • $begingroup$
    @EduardoO. are you asking specifically about attaining the minimum as opposed to the maximum? Then of course, all the same arguments work. If you'd prefer not to slightly rephrase one of the arguments below, it suffices to show that the function $g(x) = -f(x)$ attains a maximum, then use one of the arguments directly.
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:24












  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom To be honest some of the arguments below get me lost as some of things I have yet to learn or are completely new to me. I need a proof that I can interpret to show the $minimum$, yes opposed to the maximum. Thanks for any guidance you can provide
    $endgroup$
    – OLE
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:30
















4












$begingroup$


As the title indicates, I'd like to prove the following:




If $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ is a continuous function on $[a,b]$, then $f$ attains its maximum.




Now, I do have a working proof: $[a,b]$ is a connected, compact space, which means that because $f$ is continuous, $f([a,b])$ is compact and connected as well. Therefore, $f([a,b])$ is a closed interval, which means it has both a minimum and, as desired, a maximum.



What I would like, however, is a proof that doesn't require such general or sophisticated framework. In particular, I'd like to know if there's a proof that is understandable to somebody beginning calculus, one that (at the very least) doesn't invoke compactness. Any comments, hints, or solutions are welcome and apreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    It seems that I've made the mistake of not checking wikipedia first. This page has a nice proof along the same lines of some of these answerers: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jul 7 '13 at 13:11










  • $begingroup$
    Note, this problem is badly formed - you define the domain of $f$ as $mathbb R$ and then ask about a maximum. What you want is the maximum on $[a,b]$
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Nov 29 '13 at 20:38










  • $begingroup$
    Is their anything around for if a function is continuous on [a,b] attains a min value on [a,b]. I know how to prove it using sequences and compact sets. I need a third way to go about it. Any suggestions?
    $endgroup$
    – OLE
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:20










  • $begingroup$
    @EduardoO. are you asking specifically about attaining the minimum as opposed to the maximum? Then of course, all the same arguments work. If you'd prefer not to slightly rephrase one of the arguments below, it suffices to show that the function $g(x) = -f(x)$ attains a maximum, then use one of the arguments directly.
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:24












  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom To be honest some of the arguments below get me lost as some of things I have yet to learn or are completely new to me. I need a proof that I can interpret to show the $minimum$, yes opposed to the maximum. Thanks for any guidance you can provide
    $endgroup$
    – OLE
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:30














4












4








4


2



$begingroup$


As the title indicates, I'd like to prove the following:




If $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ is a continuous function on $[a,b]$, then $f$ attains its maximum.




Now, I do have a working proof: $[a,b]$ is a connected, compact space, which means that because $f$ is continuous, $f([a,b])$ is compact and connected as well. Therefore, $f([a,b])$ is a closed interval, which means it has both a minimum and, as desired, a maximum.



What I would like, however, is a proof that doesn't require such general or sophisticated framework. In particular, I'd like to know if there's a proof that is understandable to somebody beginning calculus, one that (at the very least) doesn't invoke compactness. Any comments, hints, or solutions are welcome and apreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




As the title indicates, I'd like to prove the following:




If $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ is a continuous function on $[a,b]$, then $f$ attains its maximum.




Now, I do have a working proof: $[a,b]$ is a connected, compact space, which means that because $f$ is continuous, $f([a,b])$ is compact and connected as well. Therefore, $f([a,b])$ is a closed interval, which means it has both a minimum and, as desired, a maximum.



What I would like, however, is a proof that doesn't require such general or sophisticated framework. In particular, I'd like to know if there's a proof that is understandable to somebody beginning calculus, one that (at the very least) doesn't invoke compactness. Any comments, hints, or solutions are welcome and apreciated.







calculus real-analysis alternative-proof






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edited Jul 5 '13 at 10:50









Vishal Gupta

4,65021843




4,65021843










asked Jul 5 '13 at 10:13









OmnomnomnomOmnomnomnom

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  • $begingroup$
    It seems that I've made the mistake of not checking wikipedia first. This page has a nice proof along the same lines of some of these answerers: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jul 7 '13 at 13:11










  • $begingroup$
    Note, this problem is badly formed - you define the domain of $f$ as $mathbb R$ and then ask about a maximum. What you want is the maximum on $[a,b]$
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Nov 29 '13 at 20:38










  • $begingroup$
    Is their anything around for if a function is continuous on [a,b] attains a min value on [a,b]. I know how to prove it using sequences and compact sets. I need a third way to go about it. Any suggestions?
    $endgroup$
    – OLE
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:20










  • $begingroup$
    @EduardoO. are you asking specifically about attaining the minimum as opposed to the maximum? Then of course, all the same arguments work. If you'd prefer not to slightly rephrase one of the arguments below, it suffices to show that the function $g(x) = -f(x)$ attains a maximum, then use one of the arguments directly.
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:24












  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom To be honest some of the arguments below get me lost as some of things I have yet to learn or are completely new to me. I need a proof that I can interpret to show the $minimum$, yes opposed to the maximum. Thanks for any guidance you can provide
    $endgroup$
    – OLE
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:30


















  • $begingroup$
    It seems that I've made the mistake of not checking wikipedia first. This page has a nice proof along the same lines of some of these answerers: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jul 7 '13 at 13:11










  • $begingroup$
    Note, this problem is badly formed - you define the domain of $f$ as $mathbb R$ and then ask about a maximum. What you want is the maximum on $[a,b]$
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Nov 29 '13 at 20:38










  • $begingroup$
    Is their anything around for if a function is continuous on [a,b] attains a min value on [a,b]. I know how to prove it using sequences and compact sets. I need a third way to go about it. Any suggestions?
    $endgroup$
    – OLE
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:20










  • $begingroup$
    @EduardoO. are you asking specifically about attaining the minimum as opposed to the maximum? Then of course, all the same arguments work. If you'd prefer not to slightly rephrase one of the arguments below, it suffices to show that the function $g(x) = -f(x)$ attains a maximum, then use one of the arguments directly.
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:24












  • $begingroup$
    @Omnomnomnom To be honest some of the arguments below get me lost as some of things I have yet to learn or are completely new to me. I need a proof that I can interpret to show the $minimum$, yes opposed to the maximum. Thanks for any guidance you can provide
    $endgroup$
    – OLE
    Nov 27 '16 at 6:30
















$begingroup$
It seems that I've made the mistake of not checking wikipedia first. This page has a nice proof along the same lines of some of these answerers: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
Jul 7 '13 at 13:11




$begingroup$
It seems that I've made the mistake of not checking wikipedia first. This page has a nice proof along the same lines of some of these answerers: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
Jul 7 '13 at 13:11












$begingroup$
Note, this problem is badly formed - you define the domain of $f$ as $mathbb R$ and then ask about a maximum. What you want is the maximum on $[a,b]$
$endgroup$
– Thomas Andrews
Nov 29 '13 at 20:38




$begingroup$
Note, this problem is badly formed - you define the domain of $f$ as $mathbb R$ and then ask about a maximum. What you want is the maximum on $[a,b]$
$endgroup$
– Thomas Andrews
Nov 29 '13 at 20:38












$begingroup$
Is their anything around for if a function is continuous on [a,b] attains a min value on [a,b]. I know how to prove it using sequences and compact sets. I need a third way to go about it. Any suggestions?
$endgroup$
– OLE
Nov 27 '16 at 6:20




$begingroup$
Is their anything around for if a function is continuous on [a,b] attains a min value on [a,b]. I know how to prove it using sequences and compact sets. I need a third way to go about it. Any suggestions?
$endgroup$
– OLE
Nov 27 '16 at 6:20












$begingroup$
@EduardoO. are you asking specifically about attaining the minimum as opposed to the maximum? Then of course, all the same arguments work. If you'd prefer not to slightly rephrase one of the arguments below, it suffices to show that the function $g(x) = -f(x)$ attains a maximum, then use one of the arguments directly.
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 27 '16 at 6:24






$begingroup$
@EduardoO. are you asking specifically about attaining the minimum as opposed to the maximum? Then of course, all the same arguments work. If you'd prefer not to slightly rephrase one of the arguments below, it suffices to show that the function $g(x) = -f(x)$ attains a maximum, then use one of the arguments directly.
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 27 '16 at 6:24














$begingroup$
@Omnomnomnom To be honest some of the arguments below get me lost as some of things I have yet to learn or are completely new to me. I need a proof that I can interpret to show the $minimum$, yes opposed to the maximum. Thanks for any guidance you can provide
$endgroup$
– OLE
Nov 27 '16 at 6:30




$begingroup$
@Omnomnomnom To be honest some of the arguments below get me lost as some of things I have yet to learn or are completely new to me. I need a proof that I can interpret to show the $minimum$, yes opposed to the maximum. Thanks for any guidance you can provide
$endgroup$
– OLE
Nov 27 '16 at 6:30










6 Answers
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Here’s a sketch of one possible argument. Let $u=sup_{xin[a,b]}f(x)$. (Note that I allow the possibility that $u=infty$.) There is a sequence $langle x_n:ninBbb Nrangle$ in $[a,b]$ such that for each $ninBbb N$, $u-f(x_n)<frac1{2^n}$ if $uinBbb R$ and $f(x_n)>n$ if $u=infty$. Extract a monotone subsequence $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$. Being a monotone, bounded sequence, $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$ converges to some $y$. (Note that you have to use the completeness of $Bbb R$ in some way, and this is the most elementary that occurs to me.) Moreover, $yin[a,b]$, and $f$ is continuous, so $f(y)=limlimits_{ktoinfty}f(x_{n_k})=u$.






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    I really like this proof! I think you do need to show that $u$ is finite before extracting a suitable sequence, otherwise you can't use convergence. Perhaps that needs its own proof, then.
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    – Omnomnomnom
    Jul 5 '13 at 11:02






  • 2




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    Of course, this is just the compactness proof in disguise. It contains a proof that $[a,b]$ is sequentially compact.
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    – Chris Eagle
    Jul 7 '13 at 9:28










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    @user14111 good catch, I think you're right about that. As for my earlier comment: if $f$ is unbounded on $[a,b]$, then by the construction described $f$ would map a convergent sequence to an unbounded sequence, which is a contradiction of continuity, so boundedness doesn't require its own proof after all.
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    – Omnomnomnom
    Jul 7 '13 at 13:09



















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Yes, quite a few such proofs exist. You first prove that a continuous function is bounded, and apply the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem. Here’s such a proof from my lecture notes in a first course in analysis:




By the earlier result, $,f$ is bounded. Consider the image of $[a,b]$ under $f$: $$A = f([a,b]) = left{f(x) : x in [a,b]right}.$$
$f$ bounded means that $A$ is bounded as a subset of $mathbb{R}$. We also have that $Aneq emptyset$. We will prove the existence of $x_2$, and the existence of $x_1$ is proved similarly.



Since $A$ is bounded and non-empty, there is a supremum: $M=sup A$. Given any positive integer $n$, $M-1/n$ cannot be an upper bound for $A$. Then there exists some $x_n in [a,b]$ such that %
$$M-frac{1}{n} < f(x_n) leq M. tag{$*$}$$
By Bolzano-Weierstrass, $x_n$ has a convergent subsequence $x_{n_{j}} to x$. Since $aleq x_{n_{j}}leq b$, $aleq xleq b$. By the continuity of $f$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to f(x)$. But by $(*)$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to M$. By the uniqueness of the limit, $,f(x)=M$. Now set $x_2=x$. $square$







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    This theorem ultimately depends on the completeness of real number system and can't be proven without using any result equivalent to the completeness of real number system. If we assume that every continuous function on a closed interval is bounded then we can provide a very simple proof of the current problem being discussed here.



    Under this assumption we have the existence of $M = sup{f(x)mid x in [a, b]}$. If $f(x)neq M$ for all $x in [a, b]$ then the function $g(x) = 1/(M - f(x))$ is continuous in $[a, b]$ and hence bounded in $[a, b]$. On the other hand by definition of $M$ we can find $x in [a, b]$ such that $M - f(x)$ can be made arbitrarily small. Thus $g(x)$ can be made arbitrarily large. This contradiction shows that we must have $f(x) = M$ for some $x in [a, b]$.



    The result that every continuous function is bounded on a closed interval is itself another property of continuous functions which can't be proved without using completeness of real number system.



    I have presented various proofs of these properties of continuous function here.






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    • $begingroup$
      Thank you for your answer, that's a neat twist! I looked through your linked proofs, which do an impressive job of explaining the topological notion of compactness on $mathbb R$. However, I think the better way to approach the proof that "continuous function on a closed interval is bounded" is to use the fact that sequential continuity is equivalent to continuity for metric spaces, and proceed via the B-W theorem (which itself has a neat little proof here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bolzano%E2%80%93Weierstrass_theorem#Proof )
      $endgroup$
      – Omnomnomnom
      Jul 7 '13 at 13:23










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      Omnomnomnom, actually the kind of proofs which I have put in my blogs are somewhat easier to understand but limited in their generality (especially they will need lot of development if we want to go for $mathbb{R}^{n}$). Whereas the proofs based on BW and sequential continuity are the ones which can be applied in a very general context. It also depends on the intended audience and my blog is targeted at people who probably never had undergraduate / graduate education in maths (like myself), but who find maths exciting.
      $endgroup$
      – Paramanand Singh
      Jul 8 '13 at 4:17












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      I think sequential continuity is a lot easier to understand than the Heine Borel principle. In this case, it means we don't need to worry about compactness.
      $endgroup$
      – Omnomnomnom
      Jul 8 '13 at 4:47










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      I agree the proofs based on Heine Borel are on a higher level. Even I had a very difficult time understanding Heine Borel when I first studied from Hardy's Pure Mathematics.
      $endgroup$
      – Paramanand Singh
      Jul 8 '13 at 5:08










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      It seems I didn't give your link a good enough look before making my judgment. I think your direct use of Dedekind's Theorem is far more intuitive that the notion of sequential compactness.
      $endgroup$
      – Omnomnomnom
      Jul 8 '13 at 12:07



















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    I don't know how you can avoid compactness entirely. Here's one that uses sequential compactness in the form of the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, "every bounded sequence has a convergent subsequence". (To justify that theorem to beginners, you could take it as an axiom that every bounded monotonic sequence converges, and show them the proof that every sequence has a monotonic subsequence.) For some reason that escapes me, this proof is often done in two stages, first proving that the function is bounded and then showing that the it attains a maximum.



    Given a continuous real-valued function $f$ on $[a,b]$, we will show that
    the set $Y = f([a,b])$ has a greatest element.



    For each positive integer $n$, define a finite set $Q_n = {p/q: p,q text{ integers, } 0 < q le n, |p| le n}$.



    Choose $y_nin Y$ so as to maximize the number of elements in the set ${rin Q_n: y_n > r}$, and choose $x_nin[a,b]$ with $f(x_n) = y_n$.



    The sequence ${x_n}$ has a subsequence converging to a point $cin[a,b]$. Since $f$ is continuous, the corresponding subsequence of ${y_n}$ converges to $f(c)$. We will show that $f(c)$ is the greatest element of $Y$.



    Assume for a contradiction that $f(c)<yin Y$. Choose a rational
    number $r$ so that $f(c)<r<y$. Because of the way $y_n$ was chosen, we
    have $y_n > r$ whenever $rin Q_n$. Since $rin Q_n$ for all
    sufficiently large $n$, we have $y_n > r > f(c)$ for all sufficiently
    large $n$. But this is absurd, since ${y_n}$ has a subsequence converging
    to $f(c)$.






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      I found the following proof by Takeshi Saito in "How to Learn Mathematics(New Edition)" edited by Kunihiko Kodaira.



      Let $X$ be a non-empty compact space.

      Let $f(x)$ be a real valued continuous function on $X$.

      Assume that $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$.

      Then for any $x in X$, there exists $t in X$ such that $f(x) < f(t)$.

      Let $U_t := {xin X | f(x) < f(t)}$ for $t in X$.
      $f(x)$ is continuous on $X$, so $U_t$ is an open set of $X$.
      $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$, so $(U_t)_{tin X}$ is an open cover of $X$.
      $X$ is compact, so there exists a finite subcover $U_{t_1}, cdots, U_{t_n}$.

      Let $k in {1, cdots, n}$ be an integer such that $f(x_k) = max {f(t_1), cdots, f(t_n)}$.
      $t_k in X$. So there exists an integer $l$ such that $t_k in U_{t_l}$.

      Then, $f(t_k) < f(t_l) leq f(t_k)$. This is a contradiction.

      So, $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $X$.



      Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$ such that $a leq b$.

      Then, $[a, b]$ is a non-empty compact space.

      So, if $f(x)$ is a real valued continuous function on $[a, b]$, then $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $[a, b]$.



      We now prove that $[0, 1]$ is compact.

      The discrete space ${0, 1}$ is finite. So ${0, 1}$ is compact. So, ${0,1}^{mathbb{N}}$ is compact.

      Let $f : {0,1}^{mathbb{N}} to mathbb{R}$ be a function such that $f({a_n}) := sum_{n=1}^infty frac{a_n}{2^n}$.

      Then, $f$ is continuous, so the image of $f = [0,1]$ is compact.






      share|cite|improve this answer











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        Theorem. Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be continuous. Then $f([a,b])$ is bounded.



        Proof (indirectly) avoiding compactness: Since $f$ is continuous at $a,$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for any $xin [a,a+delta),$ we have $f(a)-1< f(x)<f(a)+1.$ Hence $f$ is bounded on $[a,a+delta/2].$ Write
        $$A={xin [a,b]: f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,x]}.$$
        Then $a+delta/2in A,$ and $b$ is an upper bound of $A.$ So, let $c=sup(A).$ Now, $a+delta/2 leq cleq b.$ Continuity of $f$ at $c$ implies that there exists $delta_1>0$ such that for any $xin (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b],$ we have $f(c)-1<f(x)<f(c)+1.$ That is, $f$ is bounded on $(c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b].$ Let $din (c-delta_1,c).$ Then $f$ is bounded on $[a,d].$ It follows that
        $$f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$$

        Since $[a,c]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big),$ we have $cin A.$



        Further, if $c<b,$ then choose $delta_2=min{delta_1,(b-c)/2}.$ Then $[a,c+delta_2]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$ It follows that $f$ is bounded on $[a,c+delta_2].$ So, $c+delta_2in A.$ This contradicts the fact that $c=sup(A).$ Therefore, $c=b.$



        Hence $c=b$ and $cin A.$ That is, $bin A.$ Therefore, $f$ is bonded on $[a,b].$ QED






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          6 Answers
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          6 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Here’s a sketch of one possible argument. Let $u=sup_{xin[a,b]}f(x)$. (Note that I allow the possibility that $u=infty$.) There is a sequence $langle x_n:ninBbb Nrangle$ in $[a,b]$ such that for each $ninBbb N$, $u-f(x_n)<frac1{2^n}$ if $uinBbb R$ and $f(x_n)>n$ if $u=infty$. Extract a monotone subsequence $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$. Being a monotone, bounded sequence, $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$ converges to some $y$. (Note that you have to use the completeness of $Bbb R$ in some way, and this is the most elementary that occurs to me.) Moreover, $yin[a,b]$, and $f$ is continuous, so $f(y)=limlimits_{ktoinfty}f(x_{n_k})=u$.






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          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I really like this proof! I think you do need to show that $u$ is finite before extracting a suitable sequence, otherwise you can't use convergence. Perhaps that needs its own proof, then.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 5 '13 at 11:02






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Of course, this is just the compactness proof in disguise. It contains a proof that $[a,b]$ is sequentially compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Eagle
            Jul 7 '13 at 9:28










          • $begingroup$
            @user14111 good catch, I think you're right about that. As for my earlier comment: if $f$ is unbounded on $[a,b]$, then by the construction described $f$ would map a convergent sequence to an unbounded sequence, which is a contradiction of continuity, so boundedness doesn't require its own proof after all.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 7 '13 at 13:09
















          4












          $begingroup$

          Here’s a sketch of one possible argument. Let $u=sup_{xin[a,b]}f(x)$. (Note that I allow the possibility that $u=infty$.) There is a sequence $langle x_n:ninBbb Nrangle$ in $[a,b]$ such that for each $ninBbb N$, $u-f(x_n)<frac1{2^n}$ if $uinBbb R$ and $f(x_n)>n$ if $u=infty$. Extract a monotone subsequence $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$. Being a monotone, bounded sequence, $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$ converges to some $y$. (Note that you have to use the completeness of $Bbb R$ in some way, and this is the most elementary that occurs to me.) Moreover, $yin[a,b]$, and $f$ is continuous, so $f(y)=limlimits_{ktoinfty}f(x_{n_k})=u$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I really like this proof! I think you do need to show that $u$ is finite before extracting a suitable sequence, otherwise you can't use convergence. Perhaps that needs its own proof, then.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 5 '13 at 11:02






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Of course, this is just the compactness proof in disguise. It contains a proof that $[a,b]$ is sequentially compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Eagle
            Jul 7 '13 at 9:28










          • $begingroup$
            @user14111 good catch, I think you're right about that. As for my earlier comment: if $f$ is unbounded on $[a,b]$, then by the construction described $f$ would map a convergent sequence to an unbounded sequence, which is a contradiction of continuity, so boundedness doesn't require its own proof after all.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 7 '13 at 13:09














          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          Here’s a sketch of one possible argument. Let $u=sup_{xin[a,b]}f(x)$. (Note that I allow the possibility that $u=infty$.) There is a sequence $langle x_n:ninBbb Nrangle$ in $[a,b]$ such that for each $ninBbb N$, $u-f(x_n)<frac1{2^n}$ if $uinBbb R$ and $f(x_n)>n$ if $u=infty$. Extract a monotone subsequence $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$. Being a monotone, bounded sequence, $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$ converges to some $y$. (Note that you have to use the completeness of $Bbb R$ in some way, and this is the most elementary that occurs to me.) Moreover, $yin[a,b]$, and $f$ is continuous, so $f(y)=limlimits_{ktoinfty}f(x_{n_k})=u$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Here’s a sketch of one possible argument. Let $u=sup_{xin[a,b]}f(x)$. (Note that I allow the possibility that $u=infty$.) There is a sequence $langle x_n:ninBbb Nrangle$ in $[a,b]$ such that for each $ninBbb N$, $u-f(x_n)<frac1{2^n}$ if $uinBbb R$ and $f(x_n)>n$ if $u=infty$. Extract a monotone subsequence $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$. Being a monotone, bounded sequence, $langle x_{n_k}:kinBbb Nrangle$ converges to some $y$. (Note that you have to use the completeness of $Bbb R$ in some way, and this is the most elementary that occurs to me.) Moreover, $yin[a,b]$, and $f$ is continuous, so $f(y)=limlimits_{ktoinfty}f(x_{n_k})=u$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jul 5 '13 at 10:31









          Brian M. ScottBrian M. Scott

          460k40518919




          460k40518919












          • $begingroup$
            I really like this proof! I think you do need to show that $u$ is finite before extracting a suitable sequence, otherwise you can't use convergence. Perhaps that needs its own proof, then.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 5 '13 at 11:02






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Of course, this is just the compactness proof in disguise. It contains a proof that $[a,b]$ is sequentially compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Eagle
            Jul 7 '13 at 9:28










          • $begingroup$
            @user14111 good catch, I think you're right about that. As for my earlier comment: if $f$ is unbounded on $[a,b]$, then by the construction described $f$ would map a convergent sequence to an unbounded sequence, which is a contradiction of continuity, so boundedness doesn't require its own proof after all.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 7 '13 at 13:09


















          • $begingroup$
            I really like this proof! I think you do need to show that $u$ is finite before extracting a suitable sequence, otherwise you can't use convergence. Perhaps that needs its own proof, then.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 5 '13 at 11:02






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Of course, this is just the compactness proof in disguise. It contains a proof that $[a,b]$ is sequentially compact.
            $endgroup$
            – Chris Eagle
            Jul 7 '13 at 9:28










          • $begingroup$
            @user14111 good catch, I think you're right about that. As for my earlier comment: if $f$ is unbounded on $[a,b]$, then by the construction described $f$ would map a convergent sequence to an unbounded sequence, which is a contradiction of continuity, so boundedness doesn't require its own proof after all.
            $endgroup$
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 7 '13 at 13:09
















          $begingroup$
          I really like this proof! I think you do need to show that $u$ is finite before extracting a suitable sequence, otherwise you can't use convergence. Perhaps that needs its own proof, then.
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          Jul 5 '13 at 11:02




          $begingroup$
          I really like this proof! I think you do need to show that $u$ is finite before extracting a suitable sequence, otherwise you can't use convergence. Perhaps that needs its own proof, then.
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          Jul 5 '13 at 11:02




          2




          2




          $begingroup$
          Of course, this is just the compactness proof in disguise. It contains a proof that $[a,b]$ is sequentially compact.
          $endgroup$
          – Chris Eagle
          Jul 7 '13 at 9:28




          $begingroup$
          Of course, this is just the compactness proof in disguise. It contains a proof that $[a,b]$ is sequentially compact.
          $endgroup$
          – Chris Eagle
          Jul 7 '13 at 9:28












          $begingroup$
          @user14111 good catch, I think you're right about that. As for my earlier comment: if $f$ is unbounded on $[a,b]$, then by the construction described $f$ would map a convergent sequence to an unbounded sequence, which is a contradiction of continuity, so boundedness doesn't require its own proof after all.
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          Jul 7 '13 at 13:09




          $begingroup$
          @user14111 good catch, I think you're right about that. As for my earlier comment: if $f$ is unbounded on $[a,b]$, then by the construction described $f$ would map a convergent sequence to an unbounded sequence, which is a contradiction of continuity, so boundedness doesn't require its own proof after all.
          $endgroup$
          – Omnomnomnom
          Jul 7 '13 at 13:09











          4












          $begingroup$

          Yes, quite a few such proofs exist. You first prove that a continuous function is bounded, and apply the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem. Here’s such a proof from my lecture notes in a first course in analysis:




          By the earlier result, $,f$ is bounded. Consider the image of $[a,b]$ under $f$: $$A = f([a,b]) = left{f(x) : x in [a,b]right}.$$
          $f$ bounded means that $A$ is bounded as a subset of $mathbb{R}$. We also have that $Aneq emptyset$. We will prove the existence of $x_2$, and the existence of $x_1$ is proved similarly.



          Since $A$ is bounded and non-empty, there is a supremum: $M=sup A$. Given any positive integer $n$, $M-1/n$ cannot be an upper bound for $A$. Then there exists some $x_n in [a,b]$ such that %
          $$M-frac{1}{n} < f(x_n) leq M. tag{$*$}$$
          By Bolzano-Weierstrass, $x_n$ has a convergent subsequence $x_{n_{j}} to x$. Since $aleq x_{n_{j}}leq b$, $aleq xleq b$. By the continuity of $f$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to f(x)$. But by $(*)$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to M$. By the uniqueness of the limit, $,f(x)=M$. Now set $x_2=x$. $square$







          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$


















            4












            $begingroup$

            Yes, quite a few such proofs exist. You first prove that a continuous function is bounded, and apply the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem. Here’s such a proof from my lecture notes in a first course in analysis:




            By the earlier result, $,f$ is bounded. Consider the image of $[a,b]$ under $f$: $$A = f([a,b]) = left{f(x) : x in [a,b]right}.$$
            $f$ bounded means that $A$ is bounded as a subset of $mathbb{R}$. We also have that $Aneq emptyset$. We will prove the existence of $x_2$, and the existence of $x_1$ is proved similarly.



            Since $A$ is bounded and non-empty, there is a supremum: $M=sup A$. Given any positive integer $n$, $M-1/n$ cannot be an upper bound for $A$. Then there exists some $x_n in [a,b]$ such that %
            $$M-frac{1}{n} < f(x_n) leq M. tag{$*$}$$
            By Bolzano-Weierstrass, $x_n$ has a convergent subsequence $x_{n_{j}} to x$. Since $aleq x_{n_{j}}leq b$, $aleq xleq b$. By the continuity of $f$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to f(x)$. But by $(*)$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to M$. By the uniqueness of the limit, $,f(x)=M$. Now set $x_2=x$. $square$







            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$
















              4












              4








              4





              $begingroup$

              Yes, quite a few such proofs exist. You first prove that a continuous function is bounded, and apply the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem. Here’s such a proof from my lecture notes in a first course in analysis:




              By the earlier result, $,f$ is bounded. Consider the image of $[a,b]$ under $f$: $$A = f([a,b]) = left{f(x) : x in [a,b]right}.$$
              $f$ bounded means that $A$ is bounded as a subset of $mathbb{R}$. We also have that $Aneq emptyset$. We will prove the existence of $x_2$, and the existence of $x_1$ is proved similarly.



              Since $A$ is bounded and non-empty, there is a supremum: $M=sup A$. Given any positive integer $n$, $M-1/n$ cannot be an upper bound for $A$. Then there exists some $x_n in [a,b]$ such that %
              $$M-frac{1}{n} < f(x_n) leq M. tag{$*$}$$
              By Bolzano-Weierstrass, $x_n$ has a convergent subsequence $x_{n_{j}} to x$. Since $aleq x_{n_{j}}leq b$, $aleq xleq b$. By the continuity of $f$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to f(x)$. But by $(*)$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to M$. By the uniqueness of the limit, $,f(x)=M$. Now set $x_2=x$. $square$







              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Yes, quite a few such proofs exist. You first prove that a continuous function is bounded, and apply the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem. Here’s such a proof from my lecture notes in a first course in analysis:




              By the earlier result, $,f$ is bounded. Consider the image of $[a,b]$ under $f$: $$A = f([a,b]) = left{f(x) : x in [a,b]right}.$$
              $f$ bounded means that $A$ is bounded as a subset of $mathbb{R}$. We also have that $Aneq emptyset$. We will prove the existence of $x_2$, and the existence of $x_1$ is proved similarly.



              Since $A$ is bounded and non-empty, there is a supremum: $M=sup A$. Given any positive integer $n$, $M-1/n$ cannot be an upper bound for $A$. Then there exists some $x_n in [a,b]$ such that %
              $$M-frac{1}{n} < f(x_n) leq M. tag{$*$}$$
              By Bolzano-Weierstrass, $x_n$ has a convergent subsequence $x_{n_{j}} to x$. Since $aleq x_{n_{j}}leq b$, $aleq xleq b$. By the continuity of $f$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to f(x)$. But by $(*)$, $,f(x_{n_{j}}) to M$. By the uniqueness of the limit, $,f(x)=M$. Now set $x_2=x$. $square$








              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Jul 5 '13 at 10:26









              alexwlchanalexwlchan

              1,9351118




              1,9351118























                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  This theorem ultimately depends on the completeness of real number system and can't be proven without using any result equivalent to the completeness of real number system. If we assume that every continuous function on a closed interval is bounded then we can provide a very simple proof of the current problem being discussed here.



                  Under this assumption we have the existence of $M = sup{f(x)mid x in [a, b]}$. If $f(x)neq M$ for all $x in [a, b]$ then the function $g(x) = 1/(M - f(x))$ is continuous in $[a, b]$ and hence bounded in $[a, b]$. On the other hand by definition of $M$ we can find $x in [a, b]$ such that $M - f(x)$ can be made arbitrarily small. Thus $g(x)$ can be made arbitrarily large. This contradiction shows that we must have $f(x) = M$ for some $x in [a, b]$.



                  The result that every continuous function is bounded on a closed interval is itself another property of continuous functions which can't be proved without using completeness of real number system.



                  I have presented various proofs of these properties of continuous function here.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$













                  • $begingroup$
                    Thank you for your answer, that's a neat twist! I looked through your linked proofs, which do an impressive job of explaining the topological notion of compactness on $mathbb R$. However, I think the better way to approach the proof that "continuous function on a closed interval is bounded" is to use the fact that sequential continuity is equivalent to continuity for metric spaces, and proceed via the B-W theorem (which itself has a neat little proof here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bolzano%E2%80%93Weierstrass_theorem#Proof )
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 7 '13 at 13:23










                  • $begingroup$
                    Omnomnomnom, actually the kind of proofs which I have put in my blogs are somewhat easier to understand but limited in their generality (especially they will need lot of development if we want to go for $mathbb{R}^{n}$). Whereas the proofs based on BW and sequential continuity are the ones which can be applied in a very general context. It also depends on the intended audience and my blog is targeted at people who probably never had undergraduate / graduate education in maths (like myself), but who find maths exciting.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Paramanand Singh
                    Jul 8 '13 at 4:17












                  • $begingroup$
                    I think sequential continuity is a lot easier to understand than the Heine Borel principle. In this case, it means we don't need to worry about compactness.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 8 '13 at 4:47










                  • $begingroup$
                    I agree the proofs based on Heine Borel are on a higher level. Even I had a very difficult time understanding Heine Borel when I first studied from Hardy's Pure Mathematics.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Paramanand Singh
                    Jul 8 '13 at 5:08










                  • $begingroup$
                    It seems I didn't give your link a good enough look before making my judgment. I think your direct use of Dedekind's Theorem is far more intuitive that the notion of sequential compactness.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 8 '13 at 12:07
















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  This theorem ultimately depends on the completeness of real number system and can't be proven without using any result equivalent to the completeness of real number system. If we assume that every continuous function on a closed interval is bounded then we can provide a very simple proof of the current problem being discussed here.



                  Under this assumption we have the existence of $M = sup{f(x)mid x in [a, b]}$. If $f(x)neq M$ for all $x in [a, b]$ then the function $g(x) = 1/(M - f(x))$ is continuous in $[a, b]$ and hence bounded in $[a, b]$. On the other hand by definition of $M$ we can find $x in [a, b]$ such that $M - f(x)$ can be made arbitrarily small. Thus $g(x)$ can be made arbitrarily large. This contradiction shows that we must have $f(x) = M$ for some $x in [a, b]$.



                  The result that every continuous function is bounded on a closed interval is itself another property of continuous functions which can't be proved without using completeness of real number system.



                  I have presented various proofs of these properties of continuous function here.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$













                  • $begingroup$
                    Thank you for your answer, that's a neat twist! I looked through your linked proofs, which do an impressive job of explaining the topological notion of compactness on $mathbb R$. However, I think the better way to approach the proof that "continuous function on a closed interval is bounded" is to use the fact that sequential continuity is equivalent to continuity for metric spaces, and proceed via the B-W theorem (which itself has a neat little proof here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bolzano%E2%80%93Weierstrass_theorem#Proof )
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 7 '13 at 13:23










                  • $begingroup$
                    Omnomnomnom, actually the kind of proofs which I have put in my blogs are somewhat easier to understand but limited in their generality (especially they will need lot of development if we want to go for $mathbb{R}^{n}$). Whereas the proofs based on BW and sequential continuity are the ones which can be applied in a very general context. It also depends on the intended audience and my blog is targeted at people who probably never had undergraduate / graduate education in maths (like myself), but who find maths exciting.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Paramanand Singh
                    Jul 8 '13 at 4:17












                  • $begingroup$
                    I think sequential continuity is a lot easier to understand than the Heine Borel principle. In this case, it means we don't need to worry about compactness.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 8 '13 at 4:47










                  • $begingroup$
                    I agree the proofs based on Heine Borel are on a higher level. Even I had a very difficult time understanding Heine Borel when I first studied from Hardy's Pure Mathematics.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Paramanand Singh
                    Jul 8 '13 at 5:08










                  • $begingroup$
                    It seems I didn't give your link a good enough look before making my judgment. I think your direct use of Dedekind's Theorem is far more intuitive that the notion of sequential compactness.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 8 '13 at 12:07














                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  This theorem ultimately depends on the completeness of real number system and can't be proven without using any result equivalent to the completeness of real number system. If we assume that every continuous function on a closed interval is bounded then we can provide a very simple proof of the current problem being discussed here.



                  Under this assumption we have the existence of $M = sup{f(x)mid x in [a, b]}$. If $f(x)neq M$ for all $x in [a, b]$ then the function $g(x) = 1/(M - f(x))$ is continuous in $[a, b]$ and hence bounded in $[a, b]$. On the other hand by definition of $M$ we can find $x in [a, b]$ such that $M - f(x)$ can be made arbitrarily small. Thus $g(x)$ can be made arbitrarily large. This contradiction shows that we must have $f(x) = M$ for some $x in [a, b]$.



                  The result that every continuous function is bounded on a closed interval is itself another property of continuous functions which can't be proved without using completeness of real number system.



                  I have presented various proofs of these properties of continuous function here.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  This theorem ultimately depends on the completeness of real number system and can't be proven without using any result equivalent to the completeness of real number system. If we assume that every continuous function on a closed interval is bounded then we can provide a very simple proof of the current problem being discussed here.



                  Under this assumption we have the existence of $M = sup{f(x)mid x in [a, b]}$. If $f(x)neq M$ for all $x in [a, b]$ then the function $g(x) = 1/(M - f(x))$ is continuous in $[a, b]$ and hence bounded in $[a, b]$. On the other hand by definition of $M$ we can find $x in [a, b]$ such that $M - f(x)$ can be made arbitrarily small. Thus $g(x)$ can be made arbitrarily large. This contradiction shows that we must have $f(x) = M$ for some $x in [a, b]$.



                  The result that every continuous function is bounded on a closed interval is itself another property of continuous functions which can't be proved without using completeness of real number system.



                  I have presented various proofs of these properties of continuous function here.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jul 7 '13 at 9:25









                  Paramanand SinghParamanand Singh

                  51.4k560170




                  51.4k560170












                  • $begingroup$
                    Thank you for your answer, that's a neat twist! I looked through your linked proofs, which do an impressive job of explaining the topological notion of compactness on $mathbb R$. However, I think the better way to approach the proof that "continuous function on a closed interval is bounded" is to use the fact that sequential continuity is equivalent to continuity for metric spaces, and proceed via the B-W theorem (which itself has a neat little proof here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bolzano%E2%80%93Weierstrass_theorem#Proof )
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 7 '13 at 13:23










                  • $begingroup$
                    Omnomnomnom, actually the kind of proofs which I have put in my blogs are somewhat easier to understand but limited in their generality (especially they will need lot of development if we want to go for $mathbb{R}^{n}$). Whereas the proofs based on BW and sequential continuity are the ones which can be applied in a very general context. It also depends on the intended audience and my blog is targeted at people who probably never had undergraduate / graduate education in maths (like myself), but who find maths exciting.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Paramanand Singh
                    Jul 8 '13 at 4:17












                  • $begingroup$
                    I think sequential continuity is a lot easier to understand than the Heine Borel principle. In this case, it means we don't need to worry about compactness.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 8 '13 at 4:47










                  • $begingroup$
                    I agree the proofs based on Heine Borel are on a higher level. Even I had a very difficult time understanding Heine Borel when I first studied from Hardy's Pure Mathematics.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Paramanand Singh
                    Jul 8 '13 at 5:08










                  • $begingroup$
                    It seems I didn't give your link a good enough look before making my judgment. I think your direct use of Dedekind's Theorem is far more intuitive that the notion of sequential compactness.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 8 '13 at 12:07


















                  • $begingroup$
                    Thank you for your answer, that's a neat twist! I looked through your linked proofs, which do an impressive job of explaining the topological notion of compactness on $mathbb R$. However, I think the better way to approach the proof that "continuous function on a closed interval is bounded" is to use the fact that sequential continuity is equivalent to continuity for metric spaces, and proceed via the B-W theorem (which itself has a neat little proof here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bolzano%E2%80%93Weierstrass_theorem#Proof )
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 7 '13 at 13:23










                  • $begingroup$
                    Omnomnomnom, actually the kind of proofs which I have put in my blogs are somewhat easier to understand but limited in their generality (especially they will need lot of development if we want to go for $mathbb{R}^{n}$). Whereas the proofs based on BW and sequential continuity are the ones which can be applied in a very general context. It also depends on the intended audience and my blog is targeted at people who probably never had undergraduate / graduate education in maths (like myself), but who find maths exciting.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Paramanand Singh
                    Jul 8 '13 at 4:17












                  • $begingroup$
                    I think sequential continuity is a lot easier to understand than the Heine Borel principle. In this case, it means we don't need to worry about compactness.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 8 '13 at 4:47










                  • $begingroup$
                    I agree the proofs based on Heine Borel are on a higher level. Even I had a very difficult time understanding Heine Borel when I first studied from Hardy's Pure Mathematics.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Paramanand Singh
                    Jul 8 '13 at 5:08










                  • $begingroup$
                    It seems I didn't give your link a good enough look before making my judgment. I think your direct use of Dedekind's Theorem is far more intuitive that the notion of sequential compactness.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Omnomnomnom
                    Jul 8 '13 at 12:07
















                  $begingroup$
                  Thank you for your answer, that's a neat twist! I looked through your linked proofs, which do an impressive job of explaining the topological notion of compactness on $mathbb R$. However, I think the better way to approach the proof that "continuous function on a closed interval is bounded" is to use the fact that sequential continuity is equivalent to continuity for metric spaces, and proceed via the B-W theorem (which itself has a neat little proof here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bolzano%E2%80%93Weierstrass_theorem#Proof )
                  $endgroup$
                  – Omnomnomnom
                  Jul 7 '13 at 13:23




                  $begingroup$
                  Thank you for your answer, that's a neat twist! I looked through your linked proofs, which do an impressive job of explaining the topological notion of compactness on $mathbb R$. However, I think the better way to approach the proof that "continuous function on a closed interval is bounded" is to use the fact that sequential continuity is equivalent to continuity for metric spaces, and proceed via the B-W theorem (which itself has a neat little proof here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bolzano%E2%80%93Weierstrass_theorem#Proof )
                  $endgroup$
                  – Omnomnomnom
                  Jul 7 '13 at 13:23












                  $begingroup$
                  Omnomnomnom, actually the kind of proofs which I have put in my blogs are somewhat easier to understand but limited in their generality (especially they will need lot of development if we want to go for $mathbb{R}^{n}$). Whereas the proofs based on BW and sequential continuity are the ones which can be applied in a very general context. It also depends on the intended audience and my blog is targeted at people who probably never had undergraduate / graduate education in maths (like myself), but who find maths exciting.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Paramanand Singh
                  Jul 8 '13 at 4:17






                  $begingroup$
                  Omnomnomnom, actually the kind of proofs which I have put in my blogs are somewhat easier to understand but limited in their generality (especially they will need lot of development if we want to go for $mathbb{R}^{n}$). Whereas the proofs based on BW and sequential continuity are the ones which can be applied in a very general context. It also depends on the intended audience and my blog is targeted at people who probably never had undergraduate / graduate education in maths (like myself), but who find maths exciting.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Paramanand Singh
                  Jul 8 '13 at 4:17














                  $begingroup$
                  I think sequential continuity is a lot easier to understand than the Heine Borel principle. In this case, it means we don't need to worry about compactness.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Omnomnomnom
                  Jul 8 '13 at 4:47




                  $begingroup$
                  I think sequential continuity is a lot easier to understand than the Heine Borel principle. In this case, it means we don't need to worry about compactness.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Omnomnomnom
                  Jul 8 '13 at 4:47












                  $begingroup$
                  I agree the proofs based on Heine Borel are on a higher level. Even I had a very difficult time understanding Heine Borel when I first studied from Hardy's Pure Mathematics.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Paramanand Singh
                  Jul 8 '13 at 5:08




                  $begingroup$
                  I agree the proofs based on Heine Borel are on a higher level. Even I had a very difficult time understanding Heine Borel when I first studied from Hardy's Pure Mathematics.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Paramanand Singh
                  Jul 8 '13 at 5:08












                  $begingroup$
                  It seems I didn't give your link a good enough look before making my judgment. I think your direct use of Dedekind's Theorem is far more intuitive that the notion of sequential compactness.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Omnomnomnom
                  Jul 8 '13 at 12:07




                  $begingroup$
                  It seems I didn't give your link a good enough look before making my judgment. I think your direct use of Dedekind's Theorem is far more intuitive that the notion of sequential compactness.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Omnomnomnom
                  Jul 8 '13 at 12:07











                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  I don't know how you can avoid compactness entirely. Here's one that uses sequential compactness in the form of the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, "every bounded sequence has a convergent subsequence". (To justify that theorem to beginners, you could take it as an axiom that every bounded monotonic sequence converges, and show them the proof that every sequence has a monotonic subsequence.) For some reason that escapes me, this proof is often done in two stages, first proving that the function is bounded and then showing that the it attains a maximum.



                  Given a continuous real-valued function $f$ on $[a,b]$, we will show that
                  the set $Y = f([a,b])$ has a greatest element.



                  For each positive integer $n$, define a finite set $Q_n = {p/q: p,q text{ integers, } 0 < q le n, |p| le n}$.



                  Choose $y_nin Y$ so as to maximize the number of elements in the set ${rin Q_n: y_n > r}$, and choose $x_nin[a,b]$ with $f(x_n) = y_n$.



                  The sequence ${x_n}$ has a subsequence converging to a point $cin[a,b]$. Since $f$ is continuous, the corresponding subsequence of ${y_n}$ converges to $f(c)$. We will show that $f(c)$ is the greatest element of $Y$.



                  Assume for a contradiction that $f(c)<yin Y$. Choose a rational
                  number $r$ so that $f(c)<r<y$. Because of the way $y_n$ was chosen, we
                  have $y_n > r$ whenever $rin Q_n$. Since $rin Q_n$ for all
                  sufficiently large $n$, we have $y_n > r > f(c)$ for all sufficiently
                  large $n$. But this is absurd, since ${y_n}$ has a subsequence converging
                  to $f(c)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$


















                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    I don't know how you can avoid compactness entirely. Here's one that uses sequential compactness in the form of the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, "every bounded sequence has a convergent subsequence". (To justify that theorem to beginners, you could take it as an axiom that every bounded monotonic sequence converges, and show them the proof that every sequence has a monotonic subsequence.) For some reason that escapes me, this proof is often done in two stages, first proving that the function is bounded and then showing that the it attains a maximum.



                    Given a continuous real-valued function $f$ on $[a,b]$, we will show that
                    the set $Y = f([a,b])$ has a greatest element.



                    For each positive integer $n$, define a finite set $Q_n = {p/q: p,q text{ integers, } 0 < q le n, |p| le n}$.



                    Choose $y_nin Y$ so as to maximize the number of elements in the set ${rin Q_n: y_n > r}$, and choose $x_nin[a,b]$ with $f(x_n) = y_n$.



                    The sequence ${x_n}$ has a subsequence converging to a point $cin[a,b]$. Since $f$ is continuous, the corresponding subsequence of ${y_n}$ converges to $f(c)$. We will show that $f(c)$ is the greatest element of $Y$.



                    Assume for a contradiction that $f(c)<yin Y$. Choose a rational
                    number $r$ so that $f(c)<r<y$. Because of the way $y_n$ was chosen, we
                    have $y_n > r$ whenever $rin Q_n$. Since $rin Q_n$ for all
                    sufficiently large $n$, we have $y_n > r > f(c)$ for all sufficiently
                    large $n$. But this is absurd, since ${y_n}$ has a subsequence converging
                    to $f(c)$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$
















                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      I don't know how you can avoid compactness entirely. Here's one that uses sequential compactness in the form of the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, "every bounded sequence has a convergent subsequence". (To justify that theorem to beginners, you could take it as an axiom that every bounded monotonic sequence converges, and show them the proof that every sequence has a monotonic subsequence.) For some reason that escapes me, this proof is often done in two stages, first proving that the function is bounded and then showing that the it attains a maximum.



                      Given a continuous real-valued function $f$ on $[a,b]$, we will show that
                      the set $Y = f([a,b])$ has a greatest element.



                      For each positive integer $n$, define a finite set $Q_n = {p/q: p,q text{ integers, } 0 < q le n, |p| le n}$.



                      Choose $y_nin Y$ so as to maximize the number of elements in the set ${rin Q_n: y_n > r}$, and choose $x_nin[a,b]$ with $f(x_n) = y_n$.



                      The sequence ${x_n}$ has a subsequence converging to a point $cin[a,b]$. Since $f$ is continuous, the corresponding subsequence of ${y_n}$ converges to $f(c)$. We will show that $f(c)$ is the greatest element of $Y$.



                      Assume for a contradiction that $f(c)<yin Y$. Choose a rational
                      number $r$ so that $f(c)<r<y$. Because of the way $y_n$ was chosen, we
                      have $y_n > r$ whenever $rin Q_n$. Since $rin Q_n$ for all
                      sufficiently large $n$, we have $y_n > r > f(c)$ for all sufficiently
                      large $n$. But this is absurd, since ${y_n}$ has a subsequence converging
                      to $f(c)$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      I don't know how you can avoid compactness entirely. Here's one that uses sequential compactness in the form of the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, "every bounded sequence has a convergent subsequence". (To justify that theorem to beginners, you could take it as an axiom that every bounded monotonic sequence converges, and show them the proof that every sequence has a monotonic subsequence.) For some reason that escapes me, this proof is often done in two stages, first proving that the function is bounded and then showing that the it attains a maximum.



                      Given a continuous real-valued function $f$ on $[a,b]$, we will show that
                      the set $Y = f([a,b])$ has a greatest element.



                      For each positive integer $n$, define a finite set $Q_n = {p/q: p,q text{ integers, } 0 < q le n, |p| le n}$.



                      Choose $y_nin Y$ so as to maximize the number of elements in the set ${rin Q_n: y_n > r}$, and choose $x_nin[a,b]$ with $f(x_n) = y_n$.



                      The sequence ${x_n}$ has a subsequence converging to a point $cin[a,b]$. Since $f$ is continuous, the corresponding subsequence of ${y_n}$ converges to $f(c)$. We will show that $f(c)$ is the greatest element of $Y$.



                      Assume for a contradiction that $f(c)<yin Y$. Choose a rational
                      number $r$ so that $f(c)<r<y$. Because of the way $y_n$ was chosen, we
                      have $y_n > r$ whenever $rin Q_n$. Since $rin Q_n$ for all
                      sufficiently large $n$, we have $y_n > r > f(c)$ for all sufficiently
                      large $n$. But this is absurd, since ${y_n}$ has a subsequence converging
                      to $f(c)$.







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Jul 5 '13 at 10:40

























                      answered Jul 5 '13 at 10:33







                      user75900






























                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          I found the following proof by Takeshi Saito in "How to Learn Mathematics(New Edition)" edited by Kunihiko Kodaira.



                          Let $X$ be a non-empty compact space.

                          Let $f(x)$ be a real valued continuous function on $X$.

                          Assume that $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$.

                          Then for any $x in X$, there exists $t in X$ such that $f(x) < f(t)$.

                          Let $U_t := {xin X | f(x) < f(t)}$ for $t in X$.
                          $f(x)$ is continuous on $X$, so $U_t$ is an open set of $X$.
                          $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$, so $(U_t)_{tin X}$ is an open cover of $X$.
                          $X$ is compact, so there exists a finite subcover $U_{t_1}, cdots, U_{t_n}$.

                          Let $k in {1, cdots, n}$ be an integer such that $f(x_k) = max {f(t_1), cdots, f(t_n)}$.
                          $t_k in X$. So there exists an integer $l$ such that $t_k in U_{t_l}$.

                          Then, $f(t_k) < f(t_l) leq f(t_k)$. This is a contradiction.

                          So, $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $X$.



                          Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$ such that $a leq b$.

                          Then, $[a, b]$ is a non-empty compact space.

                          So, if $f(x)$ is a real valued continuous function on $[a, b]$, then $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $[a, b]$.



                          We now prove that $[0, 1]$ is compact.

                          The discrete space ${0, 1}$ is finite. So ${0, 1}$ is compact. So, ${0,1}^{mathbb{N}}$ is compact.

                          Let $f : {0,1}^{mathbb{N}} to mathbb{R}$ be a function such that $f({a_n}) := sum_{n=1}^infty frac{a_n}{2^n}$.

                          Then, $f$ is continuous, so the image of $f = [0,1]$ is compact.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$


















                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            I found the following proof by Takeshi Saito in "How to Learn Mathematics(New Edition)" edited by Kunihiko Kodaira.



                            Let $X$ be a non-empty compact space.

                            Let $f(x)$ be a real valued continuous function on $X$.

                            Assume that $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$.

                            Then for any $x in X$, there exists $t in X$ such that $f(x) < f(t)$.

                            Let $U_t := {xin X | f(x) < f(t)}$ for $t in X$.
                            $f(x)$ is continuous on $X$, so $U_t$ is an open set of $X$.
                            $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$, so $(U_t)_{tin X}$ is an open cover of $X$.
                            $X$ is compact, so there exists a finite subcover $U_{t_1}, cdots, U_{t_n}$.

                            Let $k in {1, cdots, n}$ be an integer such that $f(x_k) = max {f(t_1), cdots, f(t_n)}$.
                            $t_k in X$. So there exists an integer $l$ such that $t_k in U_{t_l}$.

                            Then, $f(t_k) < f(t_l) leq f(t_k)$. This is a contradiction.

                            So, $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $X$.



                            Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$ such that $a leq b$.

                            Then, $[a, b]$ is a non-empty compact space.

                            So, if $f(x)$ is a real valued continuous function on $[a, b]$, then $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $[a, b]$.



                            We now prove that $[0, 1]$ is compact.

                            The discrete space ${0, 1}$ is finite. So ${0, 1}$ is compact. So, ${0,1}^{mathbb{N}}$ is compact.

                            Let $f : {0,1}^{mathbb{N}} to mathbb{R}$ be a function such that $f({a_n}) := sum_{n=1}^infty frac{a_n}{2^n}$.

                            Then, $f$ is continuous, so the image of $f = [0,1]$ is compact.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$
















                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              I found the following proof by Takeshi Saito in "How to Learn Mathematics(New Edition)" edited by Kunihiko Kodaira.



                              Let $X$ be a non-empty compact space.

                              Let $f(x)$ be a real valued continuous function on $X$.

                              Assume that $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$.

                              Then for any $x in X$, there exists $t in X$ such that $f(x) < f(t)$.

                              Let $U_t := {xin X | f(x) < f(t)}$ for $t in X$.
                              $f(x)$ is continuous on $X$, so $U_t$ is an open set of $X$.
                              $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$, so $(U_t)_{tin X}$ is an open cover of $X$.
                              $X$ is compact, so there exists a finite subcover $U_{t_1}, cdots, U_{t_n}$.

                              Let $k in {1, cdots, n}$ be an integer such that $f(x_k) = max {f(t_1), cdots, f(t_n)}$.
                              $t_k in X$. So there exists an integer $l$ such that $t_k in U_{t_l}$.

                              Then, $f(t_k) < f(t_l) leq f(t_k)$. This is a contradiction.

                              So, $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $X$.



                              Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$ such that $a leq b$.

                              Then, $[a, b]$ is a non-empty compact space.

                              So, if $f(x)$ is a real valued continuous function on $[a, b]$, then $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $[a, b]$.



                              We now prove that $[0, 1]$ is compact.

                              The discrete space ${0, 1}$ is finite. So ${0, 1}$ is compact. So, ${0,1}^{mathbb{N}}$ is compact.

                              Let $f : {0,1}^{mathbb{N}} to mathbb{R}$ be a function such that $f({a_n}) := sum_{n=1}^infty frac{a_n}{2^n}$.

                              Then, $f$ is continuous, so the image of $f = [0,1]$ is compact.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              I found the following proof by Takeshi Saito in "How to Learn Mathematics(New Edition)" edited by Kunihiko Kodaira.



                              Let $X$ be a non-empty compact space.

                              Let $f(x)$ be a real valued continuous function on $X$.

                              Assume that $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$.

                              Then for any $x in X$, there exists $t in X$ such that $f(x) < f(t)$.

                              Let $U_t := {xin X | f(x) < f(t)}$ for $t in X$.
                              $f(x)$ is continuous on $X$, so $U_t$ is an open set of $X$.
                              $f(x)$ doesn't attain a maximum value on $X$, so $(U_t)_{tin X}$ is an open cover of $X$.
                              $X$ is compact, so there exists a finite subcover $U_{t_1}, cdots, U_{t_n}$.

                              Let $k in {1, cdots, n}$ be an integer such that $f(x_k) = max {f(t_1), cdots, f(t_n)}$.
                              $t_k in X$. So there exists an integer $l$ such that $t_k in U_{t_l}$.

                              Then, $f(t_k) < f(t_l) leq f(t_k)$. This is a contradiction.

                              So, $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $X$.



                              Let $a, b in mathbb{R}$ such that $a leq b$.

                              Then, $[a, b]$ is a non-empty compact space.

                              So, if $f(x)$ is a real valued continuous function on $[a, b]$, then $f(x)$ attains a maximum value on $[a, b]$.



                              We now prove that $[0, 1]$ is compact.

                              The discrete space ${0, 1}$ is finite. So ${0, 1}$ is compact. So, ${0,1}^{mathbb{N}}$ is compact.

                              Let $f : {0,1}^{mathbb{N}} to mathbb{R}$ be a function such that $f({a_n}) := sum_{n=1}^infty frac{a_n}{2^n}$.

                              Then, $f$ is continuous, so the image of $f = [0,1]$ is compact.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Feb 3 at 0:17

























                              answered Feb 2 at 9:51









                              tchappy hatchappy ha

                              783412




                              783412























                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Theorem. Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be continuous. Then $f([a,b])$ is bounded.



                                  Proof (indirectly) avoiding compactness: Since $f$ is continuous at $a,$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for any $xin [a,a+delta),$ we have $f(a)-1< f(x)<f(a)+1.$ Hence $f$ is bounded on $[a,a+delta/2].$ Write
                                  $$A={xin [a,b]: f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,x]}.$$
                                  Then $a+delta/2in A,$ and $b$ is an upper bound of $A.$ So, let $c=sup(A).$ Now, $a+delta/2 leq cleq b.$ Continuity of $f$ at $c$ implies that there exists $delta_1>0$ such that for any $xin (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b],$ we have $f(c)-1<f(x)<f(c)+1.$ That is, $f$ is bounded on $(c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b].$ Let $din (c-delta_1,c).$ Then $f$ is bounded on $[a,d].$ It follows that
                                  $$f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$$

                                  Since $[a,c]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big),$ we have $cin A.$



                                  Further, if $c<b,$ then choose $delta_2=min{delta_1,(b-c)/2}.$ Then $[a,c+delta_2]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$ It follows that $f$ is bounded on $[a,c+delta_2].$ So, $c+delta_2in A.$ This contradicts the fact that $c=sup(A).$ Therefore, $c=b.$



                                  Hence $c=b$ and $cin A.$ That is, $bin A.$ Therefore, $f$ is bonded on $[a,b].$ QED






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    0












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Theorem. Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be continuous. Then $f([a,b])$ is bounded.



                                    Proof (indirectly) avoiding compactness: Since $f$ is continuous at $a,$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for any $xin [a,a+delta),$ we have $f(a)-1< f(x)<f(a)+1.$ Hence $f$ is bounded on $[a,a+delta/2].$ Write
                                    $$A={xin [a,b]: f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,x]}.$$
                                    Then $a+delta/2in A,$ and $b$ is an upper bound of $A.$ So, let $c=sup(A).$ Now, $a+delta/2 leq cleq b.$ Continuity of $f$ at $c$ implies that there exists $delta_1>0$ such that for any $xin (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b],$ we have $f(c)-1<f(x)<f(c)+1.$ That is, $f$ is bounded on $(c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b].$ Let $din (c-delta_1,c).$ Then $f$ is bounded on $[a,d].$ It follows that
                                    $$f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$$

                                    Since $[a,c]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big),$ we have $cin A.$



                                    Further, if $c<b,$ then choose $delta_2=min{delta_1,(b-c)/2}.$ Then $[a,c+delta_2]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$ It follows that $f$ is bounded on $[a,c+delta_2].$ So, $c+delta_2in A.$ This contradicts the fact that $c=sup(A).$ Therefore, $c=b.$



                                    Hence $c=b$ and $cin A.$ That is, $bin A.$ Therefore, $f$ is bonded on $[a,b].$ QED






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      0












                                      0








                                      0





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Theorem. Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be continuous. Then $f([a,b])$ is bounded.



                                      Proof (indirectly) avoiding compactness: Since $f$ is continuous at $a,$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for any $xin [a,a+delta),$ we have $f(a)-1< f(x)<f(a)+1.$ Hence $f$ is bounded on $[a,a+delta/2].$ Write
                                      $$A={xin [a,b]: f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,x]}.$$
                                      Then $a+delta/2in A,$ and $b$ is an upper bound of $A.$ So, let $c=sup(A).$ Now, $a+delta/2 leq cleq b.$ Continuity of $f$ at $c$ implies that there exists $delta_1>0$ such that for any $xin (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b],$ we have $f(c)-1<f(x)<f(c)+1.$ That is, $f$ is bounded on $(c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b].$ Let $din (c-delta_1,c).$ Then $f$ is bounded on $[a,d].$ It follows that
                                      $$f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$$

                                      Since $[a,c]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big),$ we have $cin A.$



                                      Further, if $c<b,$ then choose $delta_2=min{delta_1,(b-c)/2}.$ Then $[a,c+delta_2]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$ It follows that $f$ is bounded on $[a,c+delta_2].$ So, $c+delta_2in A.$ This contradicts the fact that $c=sup(A).$ Therefore, $c=b.$



                                      Hence $c=b$ and $cin A.$ That is, $bin A.$ Therefore, $f$ is bonded on $[a,b].$ QED






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      Theorem. Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be continuous. Then $f([a,b])$ is bounded.



                                      Proof (indirectly) avoiding compactness: Since $f$ is continuous at $a,$ there exists $delta>0$ such that for any $xin [a,a+delta),$ we have $f(a)-1< f(x)<f(a)+1.$ Hence $f$ is bounded on $[a,a+delta/2].$ Write
                                      $$A={xin [a,b]: f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,x]}.$$
                                      Then $a+delta/2in A,$ and $b$ is an upper bound of $A.$ So, let $c=sup(A).$ Now, $a+delta/2 leq cleq b.$ Continuity of $f$ at $c$ implies that there exists $delta_1>0$ such that for any $xin (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b],$ we have $f(c)-1<f(x)<f(c)+1.$ That is, $f$ is bounded on $(c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b].$ Let $din (c-delta_1,c).$ Then $f$ is bounded on $[a,d].$ It follows that
                                      $$f mbox{ is bounded on } [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$$

                                      Since $[a,c]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big),$ we have $cin A.$



                                      Further, if $c<b,$ then choose $delta_2=min{delta_1,(b-c)/2}.$ Then $[a,c+delta_2]subseteq [a,d]cupbig( (c-delta_1,c+delta_1)cap [a,b]big).$ It follows that $f$ is bounded on $[a,c+delta_2].$ So, $c+delta_2in A.$ This contradicts the fact that $c=sup(A).$ Therefore, $c=b.$



                                      Hence $c=b$ and $cin A.$ That is, $bin A.$ Therefore, $f$ is bonded on $[a,b].$ QED







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Dec 31 '18 at 10:00









                                      ArvindArvind

                                      835




                                      835






























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