A Cauchy-Schwarz-type inequality for $intprod_n|f_n|$












1












$begingroup$


If $X_1,X_2$ have finite second moments then Cauchy-Schwarz gives $langle |X_1||X_2|rangle^2 leq langle |X_1|^2rangle langle |X_2|^2rangle $



If $(X_n)_{n=1}^N$ have their $N$th moments is it so that $langleprod_n|X_n|rangle^N leq prod_nlangle |X_n|^Nrangle $?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I think this is probably what you are looking for: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – b00n heT
    Jan 2 at 8:33










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, it does appear much closer to Holder's inequality. I will think about it in the morning.
    $endgroup$
    – enthdegree
    Jan 2 at 8:36






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Cauchy-Schwarz is indeed a special case of Hölder's inequality. Good luck :)
    $endgroup$
    – b00n heT
    Jan 2 at 8:37


















1












$begingroup$


If $X_1,X_2$ have finite second moments then Cauchy-Schwarz gives $langle |X_1||X_2|rangle^2 leq langle |X_1|^2rangle langle |X_2|^2rangle $



If $(X_n)_{n=1}^N$ have their $N$th moments is it so that $langleprod_n|X_n|rangle^N leq prod_nlangle |X_n|^Nrangle $?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I think this is probably what you are looking for: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – b00n heT
    Jan 2 at 8:33










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, it does appear much closer to Holder's inequality. I will think about it in the morning.
    $endgroup$
    – enthdegree
    Jan 2 at 8:36






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Cauchy-Schwarz is indeed a special case of Hölder's inequality. Good luck :)
    $endgroup$
    – b00n heT
    Jan 2 at 8:37
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


If $X_1,X_2$ have finite second moments then Cauchy-Schwarz gives $langle |X_1||X_2|rangle^2 leq langle |X_1|^2rangle langle |X_2|^2rangle $



If $(X_n)_{n=1}^N$ have their $N$th moments is it so that $langleprod_n|X_n|rangle^N leq prod_nlangle |X_n|^Nrangle $?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




If $X_1,X_2$ have finite second moments then Cauchy-Schwarz gives $langle |X_1||X_2|rangle^2 leq langle |X_1|^2rangle langle |X_2|^2rangle $



If $(X_n)_{n=1}^N$ have their $N$th moments is it so that $langleprod_n|X_n|rangle^N leq prod_nlangle |X_n|^Nrangle $?







real-analysis probability-theory reference-request cauchy-schwarz-inequality holder-inequality






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 2 at 8:36







enthdegree

















asked Jan 2 at 8:13









enthdegreeenthdegree

2,61821335




2,61821335








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I think this is probably what you are looking for: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – b00n heT
    Jan 2 at 8:33










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, it does appear much closer to Holder's inequality. I will think about it in the morning.
    $endgroup$
    – enthdegree
    Jan 2 at 8:36






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Cauchy-Schwarz is indeed a special case of Hölder's inequality. Good luck :)
    $endgroup$
    – b00n heT
    Jan 2 at 8:37
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I think this is probably what you are looking for: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – b00n heT
    Jan 2 at 8:33










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, it does appear much closer to Holder's inequality. I will think about it in the morning.
    $endgroup$
    – enthdegree
    Jan 2 at 8:36






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Cauchy-Schwarz is indeed a special case of Hölder's inequality. Good luck :)
    $endgroup$
    – b00n heT
    Jan 2 at 8:37










2




2




$begingroup$
I think this is probably what you are looking for: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– b00n heT
Jan 2 at 8:33




$begingroup$
I think this is probably what you are looking for: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– b00n heT
Jan 2 at 8:33












$begingroup$
Thanks, it does appear much closer to Holder's inequality. I will think about it in the morning.
$endgroup$
– enthdegree
Jan 2 at 8:36




$begingroup$
Thanks, it does appear much closer to Holder's inequality. I will think about it in the morning.
$endgroup$
– enthdegree
Jan 2 at 8:36




1




1




$begingroup$
Cauchy-Schwarz is indeed a special case of Hölder's inequality. Good luck :)
$endgroup$
– b00n heT
Jan 2 at 8:37






$begingroup$
Cauchy-Schwarz is indeed a special case of Hölder's inequality. Good luck :)
$endgroup$
– b00n heT
Jan 2 at 8:37












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

This can be proven using Holder's inequality. Let's do it by induction, obviously this is true for $N=1,2$ so I focus on the induction step. Suppose we are given $(X_n)_{n=1}^{N+1}$ and have finite $N+1$'th moments, then
begin{align*}
leftlangle prod_{n=1}^{N+1} |X_n|rightrangle&leq leftlangle prod_{n=1}^N |X_n|^{frac{N+1}{N}} rightrangle^{frac{N}{N+1}}cdotlangle |X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
&leq prod_{n=1}^{N+1} langle |X_n|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}} cdot langle|X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
end{align*}

where the first inequality is Holder's inequality with $p=frac{N+1}{N}$ and $q=N+1$, the second one is induction hypothesis.



Taking all this to the power $N+1$ you get your desired result.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













    Your Answer





    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    });
    });
    }, "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function() {
    var channelOptions = {
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    };
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
    createEditor();
    });
    }
    else {
    createEditor();
    }
    });

    function createEditor() {
    StackExchange.prepareEditor({
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader: {
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    },
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    });


    }
    });














    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function () {
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3059233%2fa-cauchy-schwarz-type-inequality-for-int-prod-nf-n%23new-answer', 'question_page');
    }
    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    This can be proven using Holder's inequality. Let's do it by induction, obviously this is true for $N=1,2$ so I focus on the induction step. Suppose we are given $(X_n)_{n=1}^{N+1}$ and have finite $N+1$'th moments, then
    begin{align*}
    leftlangle prod_{n=1}^{N+1} |X_n|rightrangle&leq leftlangle prod_{n=1}^N |X_n|^{frac{N+1}{N}} rightrangle^{frac{N}{N+1}}cdotlangle |X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
    &leq prod_{n=1}^{N+1} langle |X_n|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}} cdot langle|X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
    end{align*}

    where the first inequality is Holder's inequality with $p=frac{N+1}{N}$ and $q=N+1$, the second one is induction hypothesis.



    Taking all this to the power $N+1$ you get your desired result.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      This can be proven using Holder's inequality. Let's do it by induction, obviously this is true for $N=1,2$ so I focus on the induction step. Suppose we are given $(X_n)_{n=1}^{N+1}$ and have finite $N+1$'th moments, then
      begin{align*}
      leftlangle prod_{n=1}^{N+1} |X_n|rightrangle&leq leftlangle prod_{n=1}^N |X_n|^{frac{N+1}{N}} rightrangle^{frac{N}{N+1}}cdotlangle |X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
      &leq prod_{n=1}^{N+1} langle |X_n|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}} cdot langle|X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
      end{align*}

      where the first inequality is Holder's inequality with $p=frac{N+1}{N}$ and $q=N+1$, the second one is induction hypothesis.



      Taking all this to the power $N+1$ you get your desired result.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        This can be proven using Holder's inequality. Let's do it by induction, obviously this is true for $N=1,2$ so I focus on the induction step. Suppose we are given $(X_n)_{n=1}^{N+1}$ and have finite $N+1$'th moments, then
        begin{align*}
        leftlangle prod_{n=1}^{N+1} |X_n|rightrangle&leq leftlangle prod_{n=1}^N |X_n|^{frac{N+1}{N}} rightrangle^{frac{N}{N+1}}cdotlangle |X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
        &leq prod_{n=1}^{N+1} langle |X_n|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}} cdot langle|X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
        end{align*}

        where the first inequality is Holder's inequality with $p=frac{N+1}{N}$ and $q=N+1$, the second one is induction hypothesis.



        Taking all this to the power $N+1$ you get your desired result.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        This can be proven using Holder's inequality. Let's do it by induction, obviously this is true for $N=1,2$ so I focus on the induction step. Suppose we are given $(X_n)_{n=1}^{N+1}$ and have finite $N+1$'th moments, then
        begin{align*}
        leftlangle prod_{n=1}^{N+1} |X_n|rightrangle&leq leftlangle prod_{n=1}^N |X_n|^{frac{N+1}{N}} rightrangle^{frac{N}{N+1}}cdotlangle |X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
        &leq prod_{n=1}^{N+1} langle |X_n|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}} cdot langle|X_{N+1}|^{N+1} rangle^{frac{1}{N+1}}\
        end{align*}

        where the first inequality is Holder's inequality with $p=frac{N+1}{N}$ and $q=N+1$, the second one is induction hypothesis.



        Taking all this to the power $N+1$ you get your desired result.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 2 at 8:40









        P. QuintonP. Quinton

        1,603213




        1,603213






























            draft saved

            draft discarded




















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3059233%2fa-cauchy-schwarz-type-inequality-for-int-prod-nf-n%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            Can a sorcerer learn a 5th-level spell early by creating spell slots using the Font of Magic feature?

            Does disintegrating a polymorphed enemy still kill it after the 2018 errata?

            A Topological Invariant for $pi_3(U(n))$