A functional equation of two variables












6












$begingroup$


Solve the following functional equation :
$f:Bbb Z rightarrow Bbb Z$, $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+2017)$



I have no prior experience with solving functional equation but still tried a bit. I set $x=y=0$ to get $f(f(0))=f(2017)$. Can we apply $f^{-1}$ both sides to get $f(0)=2017$? I am unable to carry this on.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's allowed to take $f^{-1}$ on both sides if a function is monotonic. Can you assume that $f$ is monotonic in this case?
    $endgroup$
    – Matti P.
    Jan 2 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Of $f$ is not injective you can't cancel it out
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Jan 2 at 9:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MattiP. Not monotonic, to be able to use $f^{-1}$ you need $f$ to be bijective, and to cancel out $f$ you need it to be injective
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Jan 2 at 9:04










  • $begingroup$
    It holds, because we have that at $y=-2017$, $f(0)=f(f(x)-2017)-x$ and at $f(x)=2017$, $f(0)=f(0)-x|_{f(x)=2017}$ so that $f(0)=2017$.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 9:19












  • $begingroup$
    $f(x)=x+2017$ is clearly a solution, and probably the only solution, showing nothing else works is proving to be tricky though.
    $endgroup$
    – Erik Parkinson
    Jan 2 at 9:36
















6












$begingroup$


Solve the following functional equation :
$f:Bbb Z rightarrow Bbb Z$, $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+2017)$



I have no prior experience with solving functional equation but still tried a bit. I set $x=y=0$ to get $f(f(0))=f(2017)$. Can we apply $f^{-1}$ both sides to get $f(0)=2017$? I am unable to carry this on.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's allowed to take $f^{-1}$ on both sides if a function is monotonic. Can you assume that $f$ is monotonic in this case?
    $endgroup$
    – Matti P.
    Jan 2 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Of $f$ is not injective you can't cancel it out
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Jan 2 at 9:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MattiP. Not monotonic, to be able to use $f^{-1}$ you need $f$ to be bijective, and to cancel out $f$ you need it to be injective
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Jan 2 at 9:04










  • $begingroup$
    It holds, because we have that at $y=-2017$, $f(0)=f(f(x)-2017)-x$ and at $f(x)=2017$, $f(0)=f(0)-x|_{f(x)=2017}$ so that $f(0)=2017$.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 9:19












  • $begingroup$
    $f(x)=x+2017$ is clearly a solution, and probably the only solution, showing nothing else works is proving to be tricky though.
    $endgroup$
    – Erik Parkinson
    Jan 2 at 9:36














6












6








6


3



$begingroup$


Solve the following functional equation :
$f:Bbb Z rightarrow Bbb Z$, $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+2017)$



I have no prior experience with solving functional equation but still tried a bit. I set $x=y=0$ to get $f(f(0))=f(2017)$. Can we apply $f^{-1}$ both sides to get $f(0)=2017$? I am unable to carry this on.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Solve the following functional equation :
$f:Bbb Z rightarrow Bbb Z$, $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+2017)$



I have no prior experience with solving functional equation but still tried a bit. I set $x=y=0$ to get $f(f(0))=f(2017)$. Can we apply $f^{-1}$ both sides to get $f(0)=2017$? I am unable to carry this on.







functional-equations






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 3 at 4:26









Cheerful Parsnip

20.9k23397




20.9k23397










asked Jan 2 at 8:32









Epsilon zeroEpsilon zero

34118




34118








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's allowed to take $f^{-1}$ on both sides if a function is monotonic. Can you assume that $f$ is monotonic in this case?
    $endgroup$
    – Matti P.
    Jan 2 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Of $f$ is not injective you can't cancel it out
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Jan 2 at 9:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MattiP. Not monotonic, to be able to use $f^{-1}$ you need $f$ to be bijective, and to cancel out $f$ you need it to be injective
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Jan 2 at 9:04










  • $begingroup$
    It holds, because we have that at $y=-2017$, $f(0)=f(f(x)-2017)-x$ and at $f(x)=2017$, $f(0)=f(0)-x|_{f(x)=2017}$ so that $f(0)=2017$.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 9:19












  • $begingroup$
    $f(x)=x+2017$ is clearly a solution, and probably the only solution, showing nothing else works is proving to be tricky though.
    $endgroup$
    – Erik Parkinson
    Jan 2 at 9:36














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's allowed to take $f^{-1}$ on both sides if a function is monotonic. Can you assume that $f$ is monotonic in this case?
    $endgroup$
    – Matti P.
    Jan 2 at 9:01










  • $begingroup$
    Of $f$ is not injective you can't cancel it out
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Jan 2 at 9:02










  • $begingroup$
    @MattiP. Not monotonic, to be able to use $f^{-1}$ you need $f$ to be bijective, and to cancel out $f$ you need it to be injective
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Jan 2 at 9:04










  • $begingroup$
    It holds, because we have that at $y=-2017$, $f(0)=f(f(x)-2017)-x$ and at $f(x)=2017$, $f(0)=f(0)-x|_{f(x)=2017}$ so that $f(0)=2017$.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 9:19












  • $begingroup$
    $f(x)=x+2017$ is clearly a solution, and probably the only solution, showing nothing else works is proving to be tricky though.
    $endgroup$
    – Erik Parkinson
    Jan 2 at 9:36








1




1




$begingroup$
It's allowed to take $f^{-1}$ on both sides if a function is monotonic. Can you assume that $f$ is monotonic in this case?
$endgroup$
– Matti P.
Jan 2 at 9:01




$begingroup$
It's allowed to take $f^{-1}$ on both sides if a function is monotonic. Can you assume that $f$ is monotonic in this case?
$endgroup$
– Matti P.
Jan 2 at 9:01












$begingroup$
Of $f$ is not injective you can't cancel it out
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 2 at 9:02




$begingroup$
Of $f$ is not injective you can't cancel it out
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 2 at 9:02












$begingroup$
@MattiP. Not monotonic, to be able to use $f^{-1}$ you need $f$ to be bijective, and to cancel out $f$ you need it to be injective
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 2 at 9:04




$begingroup$
@MattiP. Not monotonic, to be able to use $f^{-1}$ you need $f$ to be bijective, and to cancel out $f$ you need it to be injective
$endgroup$
– Holo
Jan 2 at 9:04












$begingroup$
It holds, because we have that at $y=-2017$, $f(0)=f(f(x)-2017)-x$ and at $f(x)=2017$, $f(0)=f(0)-x|_{f(x)=2017}$ so that $f(0)=2017$.
$endgroup$
– TheSimpliFire
Jan 2 at 9:19






$begingroup$
It holds, because we have that at $y=-2017$, $f(0)=f(f(x)-2017)-x$ and at $f(x)=2017$, $f(0)=f(0)-x|_{f(x)=2017}$ so that $f(0)=2017$.
$endgroup$
– TheSimpliFire
Jan 2 at 9:19














$begingroup$
$f(x)=x+2017$ is clearly a solution, and probably the only solution, showing nothing else works is proving to be tricky though.
$endgroup$
– Erik Parkinson
Jan 2 at 9:36




$begingroup$
$f(x)=x+2017$ is clearly a solution, and probably the only solution, showing nothing else works is proving to be tricky though.
$endgroup$
– Erik Parkinson
Jan 2 at 9:36










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















9












$begingroup$

Got it! I probably complicated it more than I had to so if anyone sees any way to simply this I would love to hear feedback.



To solve this, let $y=0$ so that
$f(f(x)) = x+f(2017)$.
Let $c=f(2017)$. Then for all $xinmathbb{Z}$,
$$f(f(x)) = x+c$$



Now plugging $x=y=0$ into the original equation we get
$f(f(0)) = f(2017)$. Taking $f$ of both sides yields
$f(f(f(0))) = f(f(2017))$ which is $f(0)+c=2017+c$ so
$f(0) = 2017$.



Now take $f$ of both sides of the original equation to get
$f(f(f(x)+y)) = f(x+f(y+2017))$
which is
$f(x)+y + c = f(x+f(y+2017))$
Setting $y=-2017$ gives
$$f(x)-2017 + c = f(x+f(0)) = f(x+2017)$$.



Now we return again to the original equation with $y=1$. This gives
$f(f(x)+1) = x+f(2018)$ which by the above formula is
$x+f(1)-2017 + c$. So
$$f(f(x)+1)-f(f(x)) = x+f(1)-2017+c - (x+c) = f(1)-2017$$



Now, as $f(f(x)) = x+c$, $f(f(x))$, and thus $f(x)$, can attain all values in $mathbb{Z}$. So for any $kinmathbb{Z}$, there is an $xinmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(x)=k$, and so the above formula becomes
$$f(k+1)-f(k) = f(1)-2017$$
for all $kinmathbb{Z}$. So for all $kinmathbb{Z}$,
$$f(k) = k+c_2$$
for some $c_2$. So the original equation becomes
$$x+y+2c_2=x+y+2017+c_2$$
so $c_2=2017$. Thus the only solution is
$$f(x) = x+2017$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    (+1) nice! ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 10:38



















2












$begingroup$

You could take $y=0$ there and get $f(f(x))=x+f(2017)=x+n$ where $n$ is a constant. Thus $f(f(x))$ is a linear function. You can observe (guess?) what $f(x)$ could be like here. If it is so, then you have no problem taking $f^{-1}$ and you can easily find $n$.



The point is how to prove the nature of $f(x)$ if you know $f(f(x))$ is linear. This is an interesting problem. What is the square root (with integer values) of a linear function?



Now here I'm not sure $f(x)$ will end up being a simple function involving only arithmetic operations, or a function also involving the modulo.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is better posted as a comment. As you don't yet have enough reputation for that, how about answering some other questions and come back? :)
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 9:20





















2












$begingroup$

Let $n$ be an integer. Then at $f(x)=n$ and $y=0$, the equation $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+n)$ becomes $f(n+y)=f(y+n)+xBig|_{f(x)=n}$, so $f(0)=n$.



Now at $f(x)=n+1$, we can derive similar relations, at $y=0$ and $y=-1$ respectively, $$xBig|_{f(x)=n+1}=f(n+1)-f(n)=f(n)-f(n-1)implies 2f(n)=f(n-1)+f(n+1).$$



By induction it can be proven that $2f(n)=f(n-x)+f(n+x)$ or $2f(n)=f(x)+f(2n-x)$ for any integer $x$. Assuming differentiability, $f'(x)-f'(2n-x)=0$ so $f$ is either a linear or periodic function. It cannot be periodic because $f(0)=n$ and $xBig|_{f(x)=0}=f(n)-f(0)$.



Thus $f$ is a linear function and putting it in $f(x)=ax+b$, gives us $b=n$ and $a=1$ since $f(f(x))=x+f(n)$.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    9












    $begingroup$

    Got it! I probably complicated it more than I had to so if anyone sees any way to simply this I would love to hear feedback.



    To solve this, let $y=0$ so that
    $f(f(x)) = x+f(2017)$.
    Let $c=f(2017)$. Then for all $xinmathbb{Z}$,
    $$f(f(x)) = x+c$$



    Now plugging $x=y=0$ into the original equation we get
    $f(f(0)) = f(2017)$. Taking $f$ of both sides yields
    $f(f(f(0))) = f(f(2017))$ which is $f(0)+c=2017+c$ so
    $f(0) = 2017$.



    Now take $f$ of both sides of the original equation to get
    $f(f(f(x)+y)) = f(x+f(y+2017))$
    which is
    $f(x)+y + c = f(x+f(y+2017))$
    Setting $y=-2017$ gives
    $$f(x)-2017 + c = f(x+f(0)) = f(x+2017)$$.



    Now we return again to the original equation with $y=1$. This gives
    $f(f(x)+1) = x+f(2018)$ which by the above formula is
    $x+f(1)-2017 + c$. So
    $$f(f(x)+1)-f(f(x)) = x+f(1)-2017+c - (x+c) = f(1)-2017$$



    Now, as $f(f(x)) = x+c$, $f(f(x))$, and thus $f(x)$, can attain all values in $mathbb{Z}$. So for any $kinmathbb{Z}$, there is an $xinmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(x)=k$, and so the above formula becomes
    $$f(k+1)-f(k) = f(1)-2017$$
    for all $kinmathbb{Z}$. So for all $kinmathbb{Z}$,
    $$f(k) = k+c_2$$
    for some $c_2$. So the original equation becomes
    $$x+y+2c_2=x+y+2017+c_2$$
    so $c_2=2017$. Thus the only solution is
    $$f(x) = x+2017$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      (+1) nice! ${}{}$
      $endgroup$
      – TheSimpliFire
      Jan 2 at 10:38
















    9












    $begingroup$

    Got it! I probably complicated it more than I had to so if anyone sees any way to simply this I would love to hear feedback.



    To solve this, let $y=0$ so that
    $f(f(x)) = x+f(2017)$.
    Let $c=f(2017)$. Then for all $xinmathbb{Z}$,
    $$f(f(x)) = x+c$$



    Now plugging $x=y=0$ into the original equation we get
    $f(f(0)) = f(2017)$. Taking $f$ of both sides yields
    $f(f(f(0))) = f(f(2017))$ which is $f(0)+c=2017+c$ so
    $f(0) = 2017$.



    Now take $f$ of both sides of the original equation to get
    $f(f(f(x)+y)) = f(x+f(y+2017))$
    which is
    $f(x)+y + c = f(x+f(y+2017))$
    Setting $y=-2017$ gives
    $$f(x)-2017 + c = f(x+f(0)) = f(x+2017)$$.



    Now we return again to the original equation with $y=1$. This gives
    $f(f(x)+1) = x+f(2018)$ which by the above formula is
    $x+f(1)-2017 + c$. So
    $$f(f(x)+1)-f(f(x)) = x+f(1)-2017+c - (x+c) = f(1)-2017$$



    Now, as $f(f(x)) = x+c$, $f(f(x))$, and thus $f(x)$, can attain all values in $mathbb{Z}$. So for any $kinmathbb{Z}$, there is an $xinmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(x)=k$, and so the above formula becomes
    $$f(k+1)-f(k) = f(1)-2017$$
    for all $kinmathbb{Z}$. So for all $kinmathbb{Z}$,
    $$f(k) = k+c_2$$
    for some $c_2$. So the original equation becomes
    $$x+y+2c_2=x+y+2017+c_2$$
    so $c_2=2017$. Thus the only solution is
    $$f(x) = x+2017$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      (+1) nice! ${}{}$
      $endgroup$
      – TheSimpliFire
      Jan 2 at 10:38














    9












    9








    9





    $begingroup$

    Got it! I probably complicated it more than I had to so if anyone sees any way to simply this I would love to hear feedback.



    To solve this, let $y=0$ so that
    $f(f(x)) = x+f(2017)$.
    Let $c=f(2017)$. Then for all $xinmathbb{Z}$,
    $$f(f(x)) = x+c$$



    Now plugging $x=y=0$ into the original equation we get
    $f(f(0)) = f(2017)$. Taking $f$ of both sides yields
    $f(f(f(0))) = f(f(2017))$ which is $f(0)+c=2017+c$ so
    $f(0) = 2017$.



    Now take $f$ of both sides of the original equation to get
    $f(f(f(x)+y)) = f(x+f(y+2017))$
    which is
    $f(x)+y + c = f(x+f(y+2017))$
    Setting $y=-2017$ gives
    $$f(x)-2017 + c = f(x+f(0)) = f(x+2017)$$.



    Now we return again to the original equation with $y=1$. This gives
    $f(f(x)+1) = x+f(2018)$ which by the above formula is
    $x+f(1)-2017 + c$. So
    $$f(f(x)+1)-f(f(x)) = x+f(1)-2017+c - (x+c) = f(1)-2017$$



    Now, as $f(f(x)) = x+c$, $f(f(x))$, and thus $f(x)$, can attain all values in $mathbb{Z}$. So for any $kinmathbb{Z}$, there is an $xinmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(x)=k$, and so the above formula becomes
    $$f(k+1)-f(k) = f(1)-2017$$
    for all $kinmathbb{Z}$. So for all $kinmathbb{Z}$,
    $$f(k) = k+c_2$$
    for some $c_2$. So the original equation becomes
    $$x+y+2c_2=x+y+2017+c_2$$
    so $c_2=2017$. Thus the only solution is
    $$f(x) = x+2017$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Got it! I probably complicated it more than I had to so if anyone sees any way to simply this I would love to hear feedback.



    To solve this, let $y=0$ so that
    $f(f(x)) = x+f(2017)$.
    Let $c=f(2017)$. Then for all $xinmathbb{Z}$,
    $$f(f(x)) = x+c$$



    Now plugging $x=y=0$ into the original equation we get
    $f(f(0)) = f(2017)$. Taking $f$ of both sides yields
    $f(f(f(0))) = f(f(2017))$ which is $f(0)+c=2017+c$ so
    $f(0) = 2017$.



    Now take $f$ of both sides of the original equation to get
    $f(f(f(x)+y)) = f(x+f(y+2017))$
    which is
    $f(x)+y + c = f(x+f(y+2017))$
    Setting $y=-2017$ gives
    $$f(x)-2017 + c = f(x+f(0)) = f(x+2017)$$.



    Now we return again to the original equation with $y=1$. This gives
    $f(f(x)+1) = x+f(2018)$ which by the above formula is
    $x+f(1)-2017 + c$. So
    $$f(f(x)+1)-f(f(x)) = x+f(1)-2017+c - (x+c) = f(1)-2017$$



    Now, as $f(f(x)) = x+c$, $f(f(x))$, and thus $f(x)$, can attain all values in $mathbb{Z}$. So for any $kinmathbb{Z}$, there is an $xinmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(x)=k$, and so the above formula becomes
    $$f(k+1)-f(k) = f(1)-2017$$
    for all $kinmathbb{Z}$. So for all $kinmathbb{Z}$,
    $$f(k) = k+c_2$$
    for some $c_2$. So the original equation becomes
    $$x+y+2c_2=x+y+2017+c_2$$
    so $c_2=2017$. Thus the only solution is
    $$f(x) = x+2017$$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 2 at 10:28









    Erik ParkinsonErik Parkinson

    8749




    8749












    • $begingroup$
      (+1) nice! ${}{}$
      $endgroup$
      – TheSimpliFire
      Jan 2 at 10:38


















    • $begingroup$
      (+1) nice! ${}{}$
      $endgroup$
      – TheSimpliFire
      Jan 2 at 10:38
















    $begingroup$
    (+1) nice! ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 10:38




    $begingroup$
    (+1) nice! ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 10:38











    2












    $begingroup$

    You could take $y=0$ there and get $f(f(x))=x+f(2017)=x+n$ where $n$ is a constant. Thus $f(f(x))$ is a linear function. You can observe (guess?) what $f(x)$ could be like here. If it is so, then you have no problem taking $f^{-1}$ and you can easily find $n$.



    The point is how to prove the nature of $f(x)$ if you know $f(f(x))$ is linear. This is an interesting problem. What is the square root (with integer values) of a linear function?



    Now here I'm not sure $f(x)$ will end up being a simple function involving only arithmetic operations, or a function also involving the modulo.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is better posted as a comment. As you don't yet have enough reputation for that, how about answering some other questions and come back? :)
      $endgroup$
      – TheSimpliFire
      Jan 2 at 9:20


















    2












    $begingroup$

    You could take $y=0$ there and get $f(f(x))=x+f(2017)=x+n$ where $n$ is a constant. Thus $f(f(x))$ is a linear function. You can observe (guess?) what $f(x)$ could be like here. If it is so, then you have no problem taking $f^{-1}$ and you can easily find $n$.



    The point is how to prove the nature of $f(x)$ if you know $f(f(x))$ is linear. This is an interesting problem. What is the square root (with integer values) of a linear function?



    Now here I'm not sure $f(x)$ will end up being a simple function involving only arithmetic operations, or a function also involving the modulo.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is better posted as a comment. As you don't yet have enough reputation for that, how about answering some other questions and come back? :)
      $endgroup$
      – TheSimpliFire
      Jan 2 at 9:20
















    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    You could take $y=0$ there and get $f(f(x))=x+f(2017)=x+n$ where $n$ is a constant. Thus $f(f(x))$ is a linear function. You can observe (guess?) what $f(x)$ could be like here. If it is so, then you have no problem taking $f^{-1}$ and you can easily find $n$.



    The point is how to prove the nature of $f(x)$ if you know $f(f(x))$ is linear. This is an interesting problem. What is the square root (with integer values) of a linear function?



    Now here I'm not sure $f(x)$ will end up being a simple function involving only arithmetic operations, or a function also involving the modulo.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    You could take $y=0$ there and get $f(f(x))=x+f(2017)=x+n$ where $n$ is a constant. Thus $f(f(x))$ is a linear function. You can observe (guess?) what $f(x)$ could be like here. If it is so, then you have no problem taking $f^{-1}$ and you can easily find $n$.



    The point is how to prove the nature of $f(x)$ if you know $f(f(x))$ is linear. This is an interesting problem. What is the square root (with integer values) of a linear function?



    Now here I'm not sure $f(x)$ will end up being a simple function involving only arithmetic operations, or a function also involving the modulo.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 2 at 9:20

























    answered Jan 2 at 9:19









    FerredFerred

    763




    763








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is better posted as a comment. As you don't yet have enough reputation for that, how about answering some other questions and come back? :)
      $endgroup$
      – TheSimpliFire
      Jan 2 at 9:20
















    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is better posted as a comment. As you don't yet have enough reputation for that, how about answering some other questions and come back? :)
      $endgroup$
      – TheSimpliFire
      Jan 2 at 9:20










    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    This is better posted as a comment. As you don't yet have enough reputation for that, how about answering some other questions and come back? :)
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 9:20






    $begingroup$
    This is better posted as a comment. As you don't yet have enough reputation for that, how about answering some other questions and come back? :)
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 2 at 9:20













    2












    $begingroup$

    Let $n$ be an integer. Then at $f(x)=n$ and $y=0$, the equation $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+n)$ becomes $f(n+y)=f(y+n)+xBig|_{f(x)=n}$, so $f(0)=n$.



    Now at $f(x)=n+1$, we can derive similar relations, at $y=0$ and $y=-1$ respectively, $$xBig|_{f(x)=n+1}=f(n+1)-f(n)=f(n)-f(n-1)implies 2f(n)=f(n-1)+f(n+1).$$



    By induction it can be proven that $2f(n)=f(n-x)+f(n+x)$ or $2f(n)=f(x)+f(2n-x)$ for any integer $x$. Assuming differentiability, $f'(x)-f'(2n-x)=0$ so $f$ is either a linear or periodic function. It cannot be periodic because $f(0)=n$ and $xBig|_{f(x)=0}=f(n)-f(0)$.



    Thus $f$ is a linear function and putting it in $f(x)=ax+b$, gives us $b=n$ and $a=1$ since $f(f(x))=x+f(n)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      Let $n$ be an integer. Then at $f(x)=n$ and $y=0$, the equation $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+n)$ becomes $f(n+y)=f(y+n)+xBig|_{f(x)=n}$, so $f(0)=n$.



      Now at $f(x)=n+1$, we can derive similar relations, at $y=0$ and $y=-1$ respectively, $$xBig|_{f(x)=n+1}=f(n+1)-f(n)=f(n)-f(n-1)implies 2f(n)=f(n-1)+f(n+1).$$



      By induction it can be proven that $2f(n)=f(n-x)+f(n+x)$ or $2f(n)=f(x)+f(2n-x)$ for any integer $x$. Assuming differentiability, $f'(x)-f'(2n-x)=0$ so $f$ is either a linear or periodic function. It cannot be periodic because $f(0)=n$ and $xBig|_{f(x)=0}=f(n)-f(0)$.



      Thus $f$ is a linear function and putting it in $f(x)=ax+b$, gives us $b=n$ and $a=1$ since $f(f(x))=x+f(n)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        Let $n$ be an integer. Then at $f(x)=n$ and $y=0$, the equation $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+n)$ becomes $f(n+y)=f(y+n)+xBig|_{f(x)=n}$, so $f(0)=n$.



        Now at $f(x)=n+1$, we can derive similar relations, at $y=0$ and $y=-1$ respectively, $$xBig|_{f(x)=n+1}=f(n+1)-f(n)=f(n)-f(n-1)implies 2f(n)=f(n-1)+f(n+1).$$



        By induction it can be proven that $2f(n)=f(n-x)+f(n+x)$ or $2f(n)=f(x)+f(2n-x)$ for any integer $x$. Assuming differentiability, $f'(x)-f'(2n-x)=0$ so $f$ is either a linear or periodic function. It cannot be periodic because $f(0)=n$ and $xBig|_{f(x)=0}=f(n)-f(0)$.



        Thus $f$ is a linear function and putting it in $f(x)=ax+b$, gives us $b=n$ and $a=1$ since $f(f(x))=x+f(n)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Let $n$ be an integer. Then at $f(x)=n$ and $y=0$, the equation $f(f(x)+y)=x+f(y+n)$ becomes $f(n+y)=f(y+n)+xBig|_{f(x)=n}$, so $f(0)=n$.



        Now at $f(x)=n+1$, we can derive similar relations, at $y=0$ and $y=-1$ respectively, $$xBig|_{f(x)=n+1}=f(n+1)-f(n)=f(n)-f(n-1)implies 2f(n)=f(n-1)+f(n+1).$$



        By induction it can be proven that $2f(n)=f(n-x)+f(n+x)$ or $2f(n)=f(x)+f(2n-x)$ for any integer $x$. Assuming differentiability, $f'(x)-f'(2n-x)=0$ so $f$ is either a linear or periodic function. It cannot be periodic because $f(0)=n$ and $xBig|_{f(x)=0}=f(n)-f(0)$.



        Thus $f$ is a linear function and putting it in $f(x)=ax+b$, gives us $b=n$ and $a=1$ since $f(f(x))=x+f(n)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 3 at 7:36

























        answered Jan 2 at 11:08









        TheSimpliFireTheSimpliFire

        12.6k62360




        12.6k62360






























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