Distribution of X SQRT(XX+YY) where X and Y are Gaussian












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I have a complex variable $Z = X + i Y$ where $X$ and $Y$ are Gaussian iid with zero mean and $sigma^2$ variance.



I am interested in ${mathbb E} ( X |Z|^p )$.
Is there a known distribution for this?



I know that $|Z|$ is Rayleigh distributed. However, for my expression I would have ${mathbb E} (X+iY)|Z|^p = {mathbb E} X|Z|^p + i {mathbb E} Y|Z|^p = (1+i) {mathbb E} X|Z|^p$.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I have a complex variable $Z = X + i Y$ where $X$ and $Y$ are Gaussian iid with zero mean and $sigma^2$ variance.



    I am interested in ${mathbb E} ( X |Z|^p )$.
    Is there a known distribution for this?



    I know that $|Z|$ is Rayleigh distributed. However, for my expression I would have ${mathbb E} (X+iY)|Z|^p = {mathbb E} X|Z|^p + i {mathbb E} Y|Z|^p = (1+i) {mathbb E} X|Z|^p$.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I have a complex variable $Z = X + i Y$ where $X$ and $Y$ are Gaussian iid with zero mean and $sigma^2$ variance.



      I am interested in ${mathbb E} ( X |Z|^p )$.
      Is there a known distribution for this?



      I know that $|Z|$ is Rayleigh distributed. However, for my expression I would have ${mathbb E} (X+iY)|Z|^p = {mathbb E} X|Z|^p + i {mathbb E} Y|Z|^p = (1+i) {mathbb E} X|Z|^p$.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I have a complex variable $Z = X + i Y$ where $X$ and $Y$ are Gaussian iid with zero mean and $sigma^2$ variance.



      I am interested in ${mathbb E} ( X |Z|^p )$.
      Is there a known distribution for this?



      I know that $|Z|$ is Rayleigh distributed. However, for my expression I would have ${mathbb E} (X+iY)|Z|^p = {mathbb E} X|Z|^p + i {mathbb E} Y|Z|^p = (1+i) {mathbb E} X|Z|^p$.







      probability probability-distributions






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      edited Jan 8 at 18:52







      divB

















      asked Jan 8 at 18:43









      divBdivB

      228111




      228111






















          1 Answer
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          0












          $begingroup$

          Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:21












          • $begingroup$
            @divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Jan 8 at 22:25










          • $begingroup$
            I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:35










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ... x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x) gives me zero on average.
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:48













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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:21












          • $begingroup$
            @divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Jan 8 at 22:25










          • $begingroup$
            I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:35










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ... x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x) gives me zero on average.
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:48


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:21












          • $begingroup$
            @divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Jan 8 at 22:25










          • $begingroup$
            I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:35










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ... x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x) gives me zero on average.
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:48
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 8 at 18:56









          J.G.J.G.

          25.3k22539




          25.3k22539












          • $begingroup$
            That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:21












          • $begingroup$
            @divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Jan 8 at 22:25










          • $begingroup$
            I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:35










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ... x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x) gives me zero on average.
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:48




















          • $begingroup$
            That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:21












          • $begingroup$
            @divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – J.G.
            Jan 8 at 22:25










          • $begingroup$
            I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:35










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ... x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x) gives me zero on average.
            $endgroup$
            – divB
            Jan 8 at 22:48


















          $begingroup$
          That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
          $endgroup$
          – divB
          Jan 8 at 22:21






          $begingroup$
          That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
          $endgroup$
          – divB
          Jan 8 at 22:21














          $begingroup$
          @divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
          $endgroup$
          – J.G.
          Jan 8 at 22:25




          $begingroup$
          @divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
          $endgroup$
          – J.G.
          Jan 8 at 22:25












          $begingroup$
          I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
          $endgroup$
          – divB
          Jan 8 at 22:35




          $begingroup$
          I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
          $endgroup$
          – divB
          Jan 8 at 22:35












          $begingroup$
          Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ... x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x) gives me zero on average.
          $endgroup$
          – divB
          Jan 8 at 22:48






          $begingroup$
          Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ... x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x) gives me zero on average.
          $endgroup$
          – divB
          Jan 8 at 22:48




















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