Distribution of X SQRT(XX+YY) where X and Y are Gaussian
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I have a complex variable $Z = X + i Y$ where $X$ and $Y$ are Gaussian iid with zero mean and $sigma^2$ variance.
I am interested in ${mathbb E} ( X |Z|^p )$.
Is there a known distribution for this?
I know that $|Z|$ is Rayleigh distributed. However, for my expression I would have ${mathbb E} (X+iY)|Z|^p = {mathbb E} X|Z|^p + i {mathbb E} Y|Z|^p = (1+i) {mathbb E} X|Z|^p$.
probability probability-distributions
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have a complex variable $Z = X + i Y$ where $X$ and $Y$ are Gaussian iid with zero mean and $sigma^2$ variance.
I am interested in ${mathbb E} ( X |Z|^p )$.
Is there a known distribution for this?
I know that $|Z|$ is Rayleigh distributed. However, for my expression I would have ${mathbb E} (X+iY)|Z|^p = {mathbb E} X|Z|^p + i {mathbb E} Y|Z|^p = (1+i) {mathbb E} X|Z|^p$.
probability probability-distributions
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have a complex variable $Z = X + i Y$ where $X$ and $Y$ are Gaussian iid with zero mean and $sigma^2$ variance.
I am interested in ${mathbb E} ( X |Z|^p )$.
Is there a known distribution for this?
I know that $|Z|$ is Rayleigh distributed. However, for my expression I would have ${mathbb E} (X+iY)|Z|^p = {mathbb E} X|Z|^p + i {mathbb E} Y|Z|^p = (1+i) {mathbb E} X|Z|^p$.
probability probability-distributions
$endgroup$
I have a complex variable $Z = X + i Y$ where $X$ and $Y$ are Gaussian iid with zero mean and $sigma^2$ variance.
I am interested in ${mathbb E} ( X |Z|^p )$.
Is there a known distribution for this?
I know that $|Z|$ is Rayleigh distributed. However, for my expression I would have ${mathbb E} (X+iY)|Z|^p = {mathbb E} X|Z|^p + i {mathbb E} Y|Z|^p = (1+i) {mathbb E} X|Z|^p$.
probability probability-distributions
probability probability-distributions
edited Jan 8 at 18:52
divB
asked Jan 8 at 18:43
divBdivB
228111
228111
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
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– divB
Jan 8 at 22:21
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@divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 8 at 22:25
$begingroup$
I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:35
$begingroup$
Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ...x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x)
gives me zero on average.
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:48
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 8 at 22:25
$begingroup$
I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:35
$begingroup$
Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ...x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x)
gives me zero on average.
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 8 at 22:25
$begingroup$
I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:35
$begingroup$
Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ...x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x)
gives me zero on average.
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.
$endgroup$
Write $Z=Rexp iTheta$, where in requiring $Thetain [0,,2pi]$ we impose a uniform distribution on $Theta$. You're studying $R^{p+1}cosTheta$, a product of two independent variables. In particular, the mean is $0$ because the cosine averages to $0$.
answered Jan 8 at 18:56
J.G.J.G.
25.3k22539
25.3k22539
$begingroup$
That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 8 at 22:25
$begingroup$
I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:35
$begingroup$
Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ...x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x)
gives me zero on average.
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 8 at 22:25
$begingroup$
I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:35
$begingroup$
Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ...x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x)
gives me zero on average.
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:48
$begingroup$
That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:21
$begingroup$
That's a great input! Actually I want ${mathbb E}(|Z|^p Z)$ anway (also ${mathbb E}((|Z|^p Z)^2)$). So with $Z=|Z|e^{i operatorname{arg}Z}$ I am writing ${mathbb E}(R e^{iphi})$ = ${mathbb E}(R) {mathbb E}(e^{iphi})$ with $R$ Rayleigh and $phi$ uniformly distributed (and independent). Now I am trying to obtain ${mathbb E}((e^{iphi})^q) = frac{1}{2pi} int_{-pi}^{pi} e^{i q phi} dphi = operatorname{sinc}(q)$ which is always zero. What am I missing?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 8 at 22:25
$begingroup$
@divB Look beyond integer-valued $q$ if you want something non-trivial.
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Jan 8 at 22:25
$begingroup$
I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:35
$begingroup$
I know sinc is nonzero for non-integers but $q$ just happens to be 1 or 2 ... and zero doesn't make sense nor does it match with the numerics in MATLAB. I assume the assumption of independence is not true or so?
$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:35
$begingroup$
Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ...
x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x)
gives me zero on average.$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:48
$begingroup$
Hmm I think I found the trouble somewhere else ...
x=sigma*(randn(N,1)+i*randn(N,1)); mean(abs(x)^p .* x)
gives me zero on average.$endgroup$
– divB
Jan 8 at 22:48
add a comment |
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