Divergent and convergent series of positive terms












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I recently read an article which contains the following facts :---



Let ${a_n}$ be a sequence of positive number such that $sum_{n=1}^{infty} a_n$ diverges, so we must have $a_nsim frac{1}{n^p}$ where $pleq 1$. Here $sim$ means nearby, for instance $frac{k}{n^p}$ for some constant $k$.



Another fact is that , let $sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n$ be a series of positive terms and $sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n$ is convergent, that means $a_n=O(frac{1}{n^p})$ for some $p>1$, where $O$ means order.



I cannot understand how do I prove these facts rigoursly, even I don't know whether they are true or not.










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    2












    $begingroup$


    I recently read an article which contains the following facts :---



    Let ${a_n}$ be a sequence of positive number such that $sum_{n=1}^{infty} a_n$ diverges, so we must have $a_nsim frac{1}{n^p}$ where $pleq 1$. Here $sim$ means nearby, for instance $frac{k}{n^p}$ for some constant $k$.



    Another fact is that , let $sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n$ be a series of positive terms and $sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n$ is convergent, that means $a_n=O(frac{1}{n^p})$ for some $p>1$, where $O$ means order.



    I cannot understand how do I prove these facts rigoursly, even I don't know whether they are true or not.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I recently read an article which contains the following facts :---



      Let ${a_n}$ be a sequence of positive number such that $sum_{n=1}^{infty} a_n$ diverges, so we must have $a_nsim frac{1}{n^p}$ where $pleq 1$. Here $sim$ means nearby, for instance $frac{k}{n^p}$ for some constant $k$.



      Another fact is that , let $sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n$ be a series of positive terms and $sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n$ is convergent, that means $a_n=O(frac{1}{n^p})$ for some $p>1$, where $O$ means order.



      I cannot understand how do I prove these facts rigoursly, even I don't know whether they are true or not.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I recently read an article which contains the following facts :---



      Let ${a_n}$ be a sequence of positive number such that $sum_{n=1}^{infty} a_n$ diverges, so we must have $a_nsim frac{1}{n^p}$ where $pleq 1$. Here $sim$ means nearby, for instance $frac{k}{n^p}$ for some constant $k$.



      Another fact is that , let $sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n$ be a series of positive terms and $sum_{n=1}^{infty} b_n$ is convergent, that means $a_n=O(frac{1}{n^p})$ for some $p>1$, where $O$ means order.



      I cannot understand how do I prove these facts rigoursly, even I don't know whether they are true or not.







      real-analysis sequences-and-series analysis divergent-series






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      asked Jan 7 at 18:06









      MathloverMathlover

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          $begingroup$

          Either you are missing some hypotheses and/or context, or the article is blatantly wrong.



          Take for instance $a_n=2^{-n}$ if $nneq 2^{p^2}$ for any integer $p$ and $a_{2^{p^2}}=frac{1}{p}$. The sum of $a_n$ is divergent, but there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ or $n^{-a} = O(a_n)$ (however $a_n$ does go to $0$).



          Take now the same sequence, except that $a_{2^{p^2}}=p^{-2}$. Then there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ but the sum of the $a_n$ converges.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1 Answer
            1






            active

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            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

            votes









            4












            $begingroup$

            Either you are missing some hypotheses and/or context, or the article is blatantly wrong.



            Take for instance $a_n=2^{-n}$ if $nneq 2^{p^2}$ for any integer $p$ and $a_{2^{p^2}}=frac{1}{p}$. The sum of $a_n$ is divergent, but there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ or $n^{-a} = O(a_n)$ (however $a_n$ does go to $0$).



            Take now the same sequence, except that $a_{2^{p^2}}=p^{-2}$. Then there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ but the sum of the $a_n$ converges.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              4












              $begingroup$

              Either you are missing some hypotheses and/or context, or the article is blatantly wrong.



              Take for instance $a_n=2^{-n}$ if $nneq 2^{p^2}$ for any integer $p$ and $a_{2^{p^2}}=frac{1}{p}$. The sum of $a_n$ is divergent, but there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ or $n^{-a} = O(a_n)$ (however $a_n$ does go to $0$).



              Take now the same sequence, except that $a_{2^{p^2}}=p^{-2}$. Then there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ but the sum of the $a_n$ converges.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                4












                4








                4





                $begingroup$

                Either you are missing some hypotheses and/or context, or the article is blatantly wrong.



                Take for instance $a_n=2^{-n}$ if $nneq 2^{p^2}$ for any integer $p$ and $a_{2^{p^2}}=frac{1}{p}$. The sum of $a_n$ is divergent, but there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ or $n^{-a} = O(a_n)$ (however $a_n$ does go to $0$).



                Take now the same sequence, except that $a_{2^{p^2}}=p^{-2}$. Then there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ but the sum of the $a_n$ converges.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Either you are missing some hypotheses and/or context, or the article is blatantly wrong.



                Take for instance $a_n=2^{-n}$ if $nneq 2^{p^2}$ for any integer $p$ and $a_{2^{p^2}}=frac{1}{p}$. The sum of $a_n$ is divergent, but there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ or $n^{-a} = O(a_n)$ (however $a_n$ does go to $0$).



                Take now the same sequence, except that $a_{2^{p^2}}=p^{-2}$. Then there is no real number $a>0$ such that $a_n=O(n^{-a})$ but the sum of the $a_n$ converges.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 7 at 18:14









                MindlackMindlack

                3,36217




                3,36217






























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