Confusion regarding the proof of “Every PID satisfies the Ascending Chain Condition”.












0












$begingroup$


I refer to this proof of the fact that Principal Ideal Domains satisfy the Ascending Chain Condition.



It says




Let $bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i=(a)$. As $a$ is present in $bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i$, it should be present in some $I_msubseteq bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i$




I don't understand why. For example, in $Bbb{Z},(2^8)subset (2^4)subseteq(2^2)subseteq(2)$. We know $6in (2)$, and $6notin (2^8),(2^4),(2^2)$. Also, $(2)=(2)bigcup(2^2)bigcup(2^4)bigcup(2^8)$. Hence, it is possible that an element is present in $(2)bigcup(2^2)bigcup(2^4)bigcup(2^8)$, but not in any of its sub-ideals ($(2^2),(2^4)$ or $(2^8)$).



You might say this is an example in which the number of ideals is finite, and here we have an infinite number of ideals. However, I don't see why it should be any diferent for an infintie number of ideals. Any clarification would be great!



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I refer to this proof of the fact that Principal Ideal Domains satisfy the Ascending Chain Condition.



    It says




    Let $bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i=(a)$. As $a$ is present in $bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i$, it should be present in some $I_msubseteq bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i$




    I don't understand why. For example, in $Bbb{Z},(2^8)subset (2^4)subseteq(2^2)subseteq(2)$. We know $6in (2)$, and $6notin (2^8),(2^4),(2^2)$. Also, $(2)=(2)bigcup(2^2)bigcup(2^4)bigcup(2^8)$. Hence, it is possible that an element is present in $(2)bigcup(2^2)bigcup(2^4)bigcup(2^8)$, but not in any of its sub-ideals ($(2^2),(2^4)$ or $(2^8)$).



    You might say this is an example in which the number of ideals is finite, and here we have an infinite number of ideals. However, I don't see why it should be any diferent for an infintie number of ideals. Any clarification would be great!



    Thanks in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I refer to this proof of the fact that Principal Ideal Domains satisfy the Ascending Chain Condition.



      It says




      Let $bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i=(a)$. As $a$ is present in $bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i$, it should be present in some $I_msubseteq bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i$




      I don't understand why. For example, in $Bbb{Z},(2^8)subset (2^4)subseteq(2^2)subseteq(2)$. We know $6in (2)$, and $6notin (2^8),(2^4),(2^2)$. Also, $(2)=(2)bigcup(2^2)bigcup(2^4)bigcup(2^8)$. Hence, it is possible that an element is present in $(2)bigcup(2^2)bigcup(2^4)bigcup(2^8)$, but not in any of its sub-ideals ($(2^2),(2^4)$ or $(2^8)$).



      You might say this is an example in which the number of ideals is finite, and here we have an infinite number of ideals. However, I don't see why it should be any diferent for an infintie number of ideals. Any clarification would be great!



      Thanks in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I refer to this proof of the fact that Principal Ideal Domains satisfy the Ascending Chain Condition.



      It says




      Let $bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i=(a)$. As $a$ is present in $bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i$, it should be present in some $I_msubseteq bigcuplimits_{i=1}^{infty}I_i$




      I don't understand why. For example, in $Bbb{Z},(2^8)subset (2^4)subseteq(2^2)subseteq(2)$. We know $6in (2)$, and $6notin (2^8),(2^4),(2^2)$. Also, $(2)=(2)bigcup(2^2)bigcup(2^4)bigcup(2^8)$. Hence, it is possible that an element is present in $(2)bigcup(2^2)bigcup(2^4)bigcup(2^8)$, but not in any of its sub-ideals ($(2^2),(2^4)$ or $(2^8)$).



      You might say this is an example in which the number of ideals is finite, and here we have an infinite number of ideals. However, I don't see why it should be any diferent for an infintie number of ideals. Any clarification would be great!



      Thanks in advance!







      abstract-algebra principal-ideal-domains






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Oct 18 '13 at 6:55









      fierydemonfierydemon

      4,41012155




      4,41012155






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

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          2












          $begingroup$

          The claim is that the generator of the union of all the ideals lies in one of the "bottom" ideals - so the claim is that $2$ lies in one of the ideals, which it does: $2 in (2)$. It does not imply that every element of the "top" ideal lies in one of the others.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            There is no trouble that $2$ is not in the other ideals. That is, in this case $m=1$, or $2in (2)$. It must be in one at least, and that is enough. Recall that if $mathscr C$ is a collection of sets then $xinbigcup mathscr C$, if and only if $xin C$ for at least one set $C$ in $mathscr C$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$





















              0












              $begingroup$

              The statement resembles the statement of Proposition 12.2.14, Algebra by Artin (second edition).



              Warm-up



              What is confusing about this proof and your quoted bit is that we did not explicitly mention the Axiom of Choice (or Zorn's lemma).



              To illustrate the point. Imagine we have constructed an infinite chain of strictly increasing ideals.



              $$(a_1) subset (a_2) subset(a_3) subset dots$$



              If the chain is indeed infinite then for any arbitrary ideal $a_i$ there exists "a strictly larger" ideal $a_{i+1}$



              $$(a_i) subset (a_{i+1})$$



              "Strictly larger" for such ordering means there are elements in the set (=our ring R), that are in ideal $(a_{i+1})$, but are NOT in ideal $(a_i)$.



              Axiom of Choice



              What this axiom is about best described in Wikipedia. For our purposes, with this axiom we are allowed to pick generating elements from each ideal. Equivalently, we are allowed to construct a union of all ideals in our given ring R.



              The essence of Axiom of Choice is that we don't care that ring R may contain infinite number of ideals, or even infinite uncountable number of ideals (e.g ideals indexed by reals numbers $mathcal{R}$). Again, for finite sets we may have an explicit rule to help us pick elements from each subset. If the number of subsets is infinite, we do not care about any rules. We simply state union of all ideals still can be made by an axiom. Not always easy to convince intuition, but this is an axiom.



              Such union of ideals will be itself an ideal, having some generator (b) provided that ring R is a Principal Ideal Domain.



              With such (b) (=bound), [or ideal (a) in your case] we are unable to produce a "strictly larger" ideal in our ring R. There are basically no elements in the set we haven't included in the union already.



              Zorn's lemma



              In our theorem we have a set of elements in ring R, partially ordered by the symbol of set inclusion. That is, we can put subsets into larger subsets.



              Ideals that are arranged into chains represent total ordering. That is, each larger ideal must be "strictly" larger, include additional elements of the set.



              All chains of ideals in ring R have an upper bound, the unit ideal $(1)$ (=the whole ring R).



              The upper bound necessary exists as an element in the chain of ideals. In other words, each chain of ideals cannot include anything more when it gets to the unit ideal (=include the whole ring).



              Zorn's lemma states that ring R therefore has a maximal element. It says, either each chain of ideals has a maximal element in the form of the unit ideal $(1)$ (=includes the whole ring), or the chain ends in some other maximal element. Both options rule out possibility for an infinite strictly increasing chain of ideals.



              When we do factoring into irreducible elements, the algorithm does not allow us to move further if at the next step we do not have proper divisors. There are no elements in the set to break our element into a product of proper divisors. The unit ideal $(1)$ at the next step is not an option.



              So for Zorn's lemma chains of ideals are not allowed to go till the unit ideal, they have to terminate at some irreducible element before.



              Conclusion



              There is also a related theorem in Abstract Algebra by Dummit & Foote.




              Proposition 7. Every nonzero prime ideal is a PID is a maximal ideal.




              Still, in my opinion the main struggling point in the story is what we can do with ideals if their number is infinite, even uncountably infinite.



              If we accept the Axiom of Choice (Zorn's lemma), then we can take their union. Infinite number of ideals is not a problem, even if it is hard to imagine intuitively.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













                Your Answer





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                $begingroup$

                The claim is that the generator of the union of all the ideals lies in one of the "bottom" ideals - so the claim is that $2$ lies in one of the ideals, which it does: $2 in (2)$. It does not imply that every element of the "top" ideal lies in one of the others.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  The claim is that the generator of the union of all the ideals lies in one of the "bottom" ideals - so the claim is that $2$ lies in one of the ideals, which it does: $2 in (2)$. It does not imply that every element of the "top" ideal lies in one of the others.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    The claim is that the generator of the union of all the ideals lies in one of the "bottom" ideals - so the claim is that $2$ lies in one of the ideals, which it does: $2 in (2)$. It does not imply that every element of the "top" ideal lies in one of the others.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    The claim is that the generator of the union of all the ideals lies in one of the "bottom" ideals - so the claim is that $2$ lies in one of the ideals, which it does: $2 in (2)$. It does not imply that every element of the "top" ideal lies in one of the others.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Oct 18 '13 at 6:59







                    user61527






























                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        There is no trouble that $2$ is not in the other ideals. That is, in this case $m=1$, or $2in (2)$. It must be in one at least, and that is enough. Recall that if $mathscr C$ is a collection of sets then $xinbigcup mathscr C$, if and only if $xin C$ for at least one set $C$ in $mathscr C$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          There is no trouble that $2$ is not in the other ideals. That is, in this case $m=1$, or $2in (2)$. It must be in one at least, and that is enough. Recall that if $mathscr C$ is a collection of sets then $xinbigcup mathscr C$, if and only if $xin C$ for at least one set $C$ in $mathscr C$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            1












                            1








                            1





                            $begingroup$

                            There is no trouble that $2$ is not in the other ideals. That is, in this case $m=1$, or $2in (2)$. It must be in one at least, and that is enough. Recall that if $mathscr C$ is a collection of sets then $xinbigcup mathscr C$, if and only if $xin C$ for at least one set $C$ in $mathscr C$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            There is no trouble that $2$ is not in the other ideals. That is, in this case $m=1$, or $2in (2)$. It must be in one at least, and that is enough. Recall that if $mathscr C$ is a collection of sets then $xinbigcup mathscr C$, if and only if $xin C$ for at least one set $C$ in $mathscr C$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Oct 18 '13 at 6:58









                            Pedro TamaroffPedro Tamaroff

                            96.6k10153297




                            96.6k10153297























                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                The statement resembles the statement of Proposition 12.2.14, Algebra by Artin (second edition).



                                Warm-up



                                What is confusing about this proof and your quoted bit is that we did not explicitly mention the Axiom of Choice (or Zorn's lemma).



                                To illustrate the point. Imagine we have constructed an infinite chain of strictly increasing ideals.



                                $$(a_1) subset (a_2) subset(a_3) subset dots$$



                                If the chain is indeed infinite then for any arbitrary ideal $a_i$ there exists "a strictly larger" ideal $a_{i+1}$



                                $$(a_i) subset (a_{i+1})$$



                                "Strictly larger" for such ordering means there are elements in the set (=our ring R), that are in ideal $(a_{i+1})$, but are NOT in ideal $(a_i)$.



                                Axiom of Choice



                                What this axiom is about best described in Wikipedia. For our purposes, with this axiom we are allowed to pick generating elements from each ideal. Equivalently, we are allowed to construct a union of all ideals in our given ring R.



                                The essence of Axiom of Choice is that we don't care that ring R may contain infinite number of ideals, or even infinite uncountable number of ideals (e.g ideals indexed by reals numbers $mathcal{R}$). Again, for finite sets we may have an explicit rule to help us pick elements from each subset. If the number of subsets is infinite, we do not care about any rules. We simply state union of all ideals still can be made by an axiom. Not always easy to convince intuition, but this is an axiom.



                                Such union of ideals will be itself an ideal, having some generator (b) provided that ring R is a Principal Ideal Domain.



                                With such (b) (=bound), [or ideal (a) in your case] we are unable to produce a "strictly larger" ideal in our ring R. There are basically no elements in the set we haven't included in the union already.



                                Zorn's lemma



                                In our theorem we have a set of elements in ring R, partially ordered by the symbol of set inclusion. That is, we can put subsets into larger subsets.



                                Ideals that are arranged into chains represent total ordering. That is, each larger ideal must be "strictly" larger, include additional elements of the set.



                                All chains of ideals in ring R have an upper bound, the unit ideal $(1)$ (=the whole ring R).



                                The upper bound necessary exists as an element in the chain of ideals. In other words, each chain of ideals cannot include anything more when it gets to the unit ideal (=include the whole ring).



                                Zorn's lemma states that ring R therefore has a maximal element. It says, either each chain of ideals has a maximal element in the form of the unit ideal $(1)$ (=includes the whole ring), or the chain ends in some other maximal element. Both options rule out possibility for an infinite strictly increasing chain of ideals.



                                When we do factoring into irreducible elements, the algorithm does not allow us to move further if at the next step we do not have proper divisors. There are no elements in the set to break our element into a product of proper divisors. The unit ideal $(1)$ at the next step is not an option.



                                So for Zorn's lemma chains of ideals are not allowed to go till the unit ideal, they have to terminate at some irreducible element before.



                                Conclusion



                                There is also a related theorem in Abstract Algebra by Dummit & Foote.




                                Proposition 7. Every nonzero prime ideal is a PID is a maximal ideal.




                                Still, in my opinion the main struggling point in the story is what we can do with ideals if their number is infinite, even uncountably infinite.



                                If we accept the Axiom of Choice (Zorn's lemma), then we can take their union. Infinite number of ideals is not a problem, even if it is hard to imagine intuitively.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$


















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  The statement resembles the statement of Proposition 12.2.14, Algebra by Artin (second edition).



                                  Warm-up



                                  What is confusing about this proof and your quoted bit is that we did not explicitly mention the Axiom of Choice (or Zorn's lemma).



                                  To illustrate the point. Imagine we have constructed an infinite chain of strictly increasing ideals.



                                  $$(a_1) subset (a_2) subset(a_3) subset dots$$



                                  If the chain is indeed infinite then for any arbitrary ideal $a_i$ there exists "a strictly larger" ideal $a_{i+1}$



                                  $$(a_i) subset (a_{i+1})$$



                                  "Strictly larger" for such ordering means there are elements in the set (=our ring R), that are in ideal $(a_{i+1})$, but are NOT in ideal $(a_i)$.



                                  Axiom of Choice



                                  What this axiom is about best described in Wikipedia. For our purposes, with this axiom we are allowed to pick generating elements from each ideal. Equivalently, we are allowed to construct a union of all ideals in our given ring R.



                                  The essence of Axiom of Choice is that we don't care that ring R may contain infinite number of ideals, or even infinite uncountable number of ideals (e.g ideals indexed by reals numbers $mathcal{R}$). Again, for finite sets we may have an explicit rule to help us pick elements from each subset. If the number of subsets is infinite, we do not care about any rules. We simply state union of all ideals still can be made by an axiom. Not always easy to convince intuition, but this is an axiom.



                                  Such union of ideals will be itself an ideal, having some generator (b) provided that ring R is a Principal Ideal Domain.



                                  With such (b) (=bound), [or ideal (a) in your case] we are unable to produce a "strictly larger" ideal in our ring R. There are basically no elements in the set we haven't included in the union already.



                                  Zorn's lemma



                                  In our theorem we have a set of elements in ring R, partially ordered by the symbol of set inclusion. That is, we can put subsets into larger subsets.



                                  Ideals that are arranged into chains represent total ordering. That is, each larger ideal must be "strictly" larger, include additional elements of the set.



                                  All chains of ideals in ring R have an upper bound, the unit ideal $(1)$ (=the whole ring R).



                                  The upper bound necessary exists as an element in the chain of ideals. In other words, each chain of ideals cannot include anything more when it gets to the unit ideal (=include the whole ring).



                                  Zorn's lemma states that ring R therefore has a maximal element. It says, either each chain of ideals has a maximal element in the form of the unit ideal $(1)$ (=includes the whole ring), or the chain ends in some other maximal element. Both options rule out possibility for an infinite strictly increasing chain of ideals.



                                  When we do factoring into irreducible elements, the algorithm does not allow us to move further if at the next step we do not have proper divisors. There are no elements in the set to break our element into a product of proper divisors. The unit ideal $(1)$ at the next step is not an option.



                                  So for Zorn's lemma chains of ideals are not allowed to go till the unit ideal, they have to terminate at some irreducible element before.



                                  Conclusion



                                  There is also a related theorem in Abstract Algebra by Dummit & Foote.




                                  Proposition 7. Every nonzero prime ideal is a PID is a maximal ideal.




                                  Still, in my opinion the main struggling point in the story is what we can do with ideals if their number is infinite, even uncountably infinite.



                                  If we accept the Axiom of Choice (Zorn's lemma), then we can take their union. Infinite number of ideals is not a problem, even if it is hard to imagine intuitively.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$
















                                    0












                                    0








                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    The statement resembles the statement of Proposition 12.2.14, Algebra by Artin (second edition).



                                    Warm-up



                                    What is confusing about this proof and your quoted bit is that we did not explicitly mention the Axiom of Choice (or Zorn's lemma).



                                    To illustrate the point. Imagine we have constructed an infinite chain of strictly increasing ideals.



                                    $$(a_1) subset (a_2) subset(a_3) subset dots$$



                                    If the chain is indeed infinite then for any arbitrary ideal $a_i$ there exists "a strictly larger" ideal $a_{i+1}$



                                    $$(a_i) subset (a_{i+1})$$



                                    "Strictly larger" for such ordering means there are elements in the set (=our ring R), that are in ideal $(a_{i+1})$, but are NOT in ideal $(a_i)$.



                                    Axiom of Choice



                                    What this axiom is about best described in Wikipedia. For our purposes, with this axiom we are allowed to pick generating elements from each ideal. Equivalently, we are allowed to construct a union of all ideals in our given ring R.



                                    The essence of Axiom of Choice is that we don't care that ring R may contain infinite number of ideals, or even infinite uncountable number of ideals (e.g ideals indexed by reals numbers $mathcal{R}$). Again, for finite sets we may have an explicit rule to help us pick elements from each subset. If the number of subsets is infinite, we do not care about any rules. We simply state union of all ideals still can be made by an axiom. Not always easy to convince intuition, but this is an axiom.



                                    Such union of ideals will be itself an ideal, having some generator (b) provided that ring R is a Principal Ideal Domain.



                                    With such (b) (=bound), [or ideal (a) in your case] we are unable to produce a "strictly larger" ideal in our ring R. There are basically no elements in the set we haven't included in the union already.



                                    Zorn's lemma



                                    In our theorem we have a set of elements in ring R, partially ordered by the symbol of set inclusion. That is, we can put subsets into larger subsets.



                                    Ideals that are arranged into chains represent total ordering. That is, each larger ideal must be "strictly" larger, include additional elements of the set.



                                    All chains of ideals in ring R have an upper bound, the unit ideal $(1)$ (=the whole ring R).



                                    The upper bound necessary exists as an element in the chain of ideals. In other words, each chain of ideals cannot include anything more when it gets to the unit ideal (=include the whole ring).



                                    Zorn's lemma states that ring R therefore has a maximal element. It says, either each chain of ideals has a maximal element in the form of the unit ideal $(1)$ (=includes the whole ring), or the chain ends in some other maximal element. Both options rule out possibility for an infinite strictly increasing chain of ideals.



                                    When we do factoring into irreducible elements, the algorithm does not allow us to move further if at the next step we do not have proper divisors. There are no elements in the set to break our element into a product of proper divisors. The unit ideal $(1)$ at the next step is not an option.



                                    So for Zorn's lemma chains of ideals are not allowed to go till the unit ideal, they have to terminate at some irreducible element before.



                                    Conclusion



                                    There is also a related theorem in Abstract Algebra by Dummit & Foote.




                                    Proposition 7. Every nonzero prime ideal is a PID is a maximal ideal.




                                    Still, in my opinion the main struggling point in the story is what we can do with ideals if their number is infinite, even uncountably infinite.



                                    If we accept the Axiom of Choice (Zorn's lemma), then we can take their union. Infinite number of ideals is not a problem, even if it is hard to imagine intuitively.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    The statement resembles the statement of Proposition 12.2.14, Algebra by Artin (second edition).



                                    Warm-up



                                    What is confusing about this proof and your quoted bit is that we did not explicitly mention the Axiom of Choice (or Zorn's lemma).



                                    To illustrate the point. Imagine we have constructed an infinite chain of strictly increasing ideals.



                                    $$(a_1) subset (a_2) subset(a_3) subset dots$$



                                    If the chain is indeed infinite then for any arbitrary ideal $a_i$ there exists "a strictly larger" ideal $a_{i+1}$



                                    $$(a_i) subset (a_{i+1})$$



                                    "Strictly larger" for such ordering means there are elements in the set (=our ring R), that are in ideal $(a_{i+1})$, but are NOT in ideal $(a_i)$.



                                    Axiom of Choice



                                    What this axiom is about best described in Wikipedia. For our purposes, with this axiom we are allowed to pick generating elements from each ideal. Equivalently, we are allowed to construct a union of all ideals in our given ring R.



                                    The essence of Axiom of Choice is that we don't care that ring R may contain infinite number of ideals, or even infinite uncountable number of ideals (e.g ideals indexed by reals numbers $mathcal{R}$). Again, for finite sets we may have an explicit rule to help us pick elements from each subset. If the number of subsets is infinite, we do not care about any rules. We simply state union of all ideals still can be made by an axiom. Not always easy to convince intuition, but this is an axiom.



                                    Such union of ideals will be itself an ideal, having some generator (b) provided that ring R is a Principal Ideal Domain.



                                    With such (b) (=bound), [or ideal (a) in your case] we are unable to produce a "strictly larger" ideal in our ring R. There are basically no elements in the set we haven't included in the union already.



                                    Zorn's lemma



                                    In our theorem we have a set of elements in ring R, partially ordered by the symbol of set inclusion. That is, we can put subsets into larger subsets.



                                    Ideals that are arranged into chains represent total ordering. That is, each larger ideal must be "strictly" larger, include additional elements of the set.



                                    All chains of ideals in ring R have an upper bound, the unit ideal $(1)$ (=the whole ring R).



                                    The upper bound necessary exists as an element in the chain of ideals. In other words, each chain of ideals cannot include anything more when it gets to the unit ideal (=include the whole ring).



                                    Zorn's lemma states that ring R therefore has a maximal element. It says, either each chain of ideals has a maximal element in the form of the unit ideal $(1)$ (=includes the whole ring), or the chain ends in some other maximal element. Both options rule out possibility for an infinite strictly increasing chain of ideals.



                                    When we do factoring into irreducible elements, the algorithm does not allow us to move further if at the next step we do not have proper divisors. There are no elements in the set to break our element into a product of proper divisors. The unit ideal $(1)$ at the next step is not an option.



                                    So for Zorn's lemma chains of ideals are not allowed to go till the unit ideal, they have to terminate at some irreducible element before.



                                    Conclusion



                                    There is also a related theorem in Abstract Algebra by Dummit & Foote.




                                    Proposition 7. Every nonzero prime ideal is a PID is a maximal ideal.




                                    Still, in my opinion the main struggling point in the story is what we can do with ideals if their number is infinite, even uncountably infinite.



                                    If we accept the Axiom of Choice (Zorn's lemma), then we can take their union. Infinite number of ideals is not a problem, even if it is hard to imagine intuitively.







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                                    answered Jan 7 at 19:00









                                    Mikhail DMikhail D

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