How to show that the set of functions $E={f(0)=f(1)=0}$ is closed in $C[0, 1]$ with respect to the $infty$...
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To do it I need to show that all limit points of $E$ are inside $C[0, 1]$. How can it be showed?
One option is to show that addition of $E$ is an open set.
The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in $E$, I think.
But how can it be done correctly?
The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that $E$ contains all its limit points:
1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ is a limit point of the set $E subset C[0, 1] iff exists {f_n} subset E: f_n to f_0$ as $n to infty$, and $f_n neq f_0 forall n in mathbb N $.
2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.
functional-analysis
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
To do it I need to show that all limit points of $E$ are inside $C[0, 1]$. How can it be showed?
One option is to show that addition of $E$ is an open set.
The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in $E$, I think.
But how can it be done correctly?
The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that $E$ contains all its limit points:
1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ is a limit point of the set $E subset C[0, 1] iff exists {f_n} subset E: f_n to f_0$ as $n to infty$, and $f_n neq f_0 forall n in mathbb N $.
2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.
functional-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To do it I need to show that all limit points of $E$ are inside $C[0, 1]$. How can it be showed?
One option is to show that addition of $E$ is an open set.
The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in $E$, I think.
But how can it be done correctly?
The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that $E$ contains all its limit points:
1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ is a limit point of the set $E subset C[0, 1] iff exists {f_n} subset E: f_n to f_0$ as $n to infty$, and $f_n neq f_0 forall n in mathbb N $.
2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.
functional-analysis
$endgroup$
To do it I need to show that all limit points of $E$ are inside $C[0, 1]$. How can it be showed?
One option is to show that addition of $E$ is an open set.
The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in $E$, I think.
But how can it be done correctly?
The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that $E$ contains all its limit points:
1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ is a limit point of the set $E subset C[0, 1] iff exists {f_n} subset E: f_n to f_0$ as $n to infty$, and $f_n neq f_0 forall n in mathbb N $.
2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.
functional-analysis
functional-analysis
edited Jan 14 at 21:19
postmortes
2,04121119
2,04121119
asked Dec 26 '18 at 3:31
shpindlershpindler
172
172
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add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.
You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
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– Jonas Lenz
Dec 26 '18 at 12:29
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Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
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– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 12:34
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@Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
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– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 15:25
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Yes @shpindler, you are right
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– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 17:05
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@Hermione, thanks!
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.
You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
$endgroup$
– Jonas Lenz
Dec 26 '18 at 12:29
$begingroup$
Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 12:34
$begingroup$
@Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 15:25
$begingroup$
Yes @shpindler, you are right
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 17:05
$begingroup$
@Hermione, thanks!
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.
You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
$endgroup$
– Jonas Lenz
Dec 26 '18 at 12:29
$begingroup$
Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 12:34
$begingroup$
@Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 15:25
$begingroup$
Yes @shpindler, you are right
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 17:05
$begingroup$
@Hermione, thanks!
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.
You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?
$endgroup$
You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.
You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?
edited Dec 26 '18 at 12:33
answered Dec 26 '18 at 12:26
HermioneHermione
19619
19619
$begingroup$
I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
$endgroup$
– Jonas Lenz
Dec 26 '18 at 12:29
$begingroup$
Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 12:34
$begingroup$
@Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 15:25
$begingroup$
Yes @shpindler, you are right
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 17:05
$begingroup$
@Hermione, thanks!
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
$endgroup$
– Jonas Lenz
Dec 26 '18 at 12:29
$begingroup$
Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 12:34
$begingroup$
@Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 15:25
$begingroup$
Yes @shpindler, you are right
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 17:05
$begingroup$
@Hermione, thanks!
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
$begingroup$
I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
$endgroup$
– Jonas Lenz
Dec 26 '18 at 12:29
$begingroup$
I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
$endgroup$
– Jonas Lenz
Dec 26 '18 at 12:29
$begingroup$
Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 12:34
$begingroup$
Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 12:34
$begingroup$
@Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 15:25
$begingroup$
@Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 15:25
$begingroup$
Yes @shpindler, you are right
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 17:05
$begingroup$
Yes @shpindler, you are right
$endgroup$
– Hermione
Dec 26 '18 at 17:05
$begingroup$
@Hermione, thanks!
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
$begingroup$
@Hermione, thanks!
$endgroup$
– shpindler
Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
add a comment |
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