How to show that the set of functions $E={f(0)=f(1)=0}$ is closed in $C[0, 1]$ with respect to the $infty$...












-2












$begingroup$


To do it I need to show that all limit points of $E$ are inside $C[0, 1]$. How can it be showed?
One option is to show that addition of $E$ is an open set.
The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in $E$, I think.
But how can it be done correctly?



The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that $E$ contains all its limit points:



1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ is a limit point of the set $E subset C[0, 1] iff exists {f_n} subset E: f_n to f_0$ as $n to infty$, and $f_n neq f_0 forall n in mathbb N $.



2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.










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    -2












    $begingroup$


    To do it I need to show that all limit points of $E$ are inside $C[0, 1]$. How can it be showed?
    One option is to show that addition of $E$ is an open set.
    The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in $E$, I think.
    But how can it be done correctly?



    The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that $E$ contains all its limit points:



    1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ is a limit point of the set $E subset C[0, 1] iff exists {f_n} subset E: f_n to f_0$ as $n to infty$, and $f_n neq f_0 forall n in mathbb N $.



    2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      -2












      -2








      -2





      $begingroup$


      To do it I need to show that all limit points of $E$ are inside $C[0, 1]$. How can it be showed?
      One option is to show that addition of $E$ is an open set.
      The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in $E$, I think.
      But how can it be done correctly?



      The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that $E$ contains all its limit points:



      1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ is a limit point of the set $E subset C[0, 1] iff exists {f_n} subset E: f_n to f_0$ as $n to infty$, and $f_n neq f_0 forall n in mathbb N $.



      2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      To do it I need to show that all limit points of $E$ are inside $C[0, 1]$. How can it be showed?
      One option is to show that addition of $E$ is an open set.
      The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in $E$, I think.
      But how can it be done correctly?



      The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that $E$ contains all its limit points:



      1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ is a limit point of the set $E subset C[0, 1] iff exists {f_n} subset E: f_n to f_0$ as $n to infty$, and $f_n neq f_0 forall n in mathbb N $.



      2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.







      functional-analysis






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 14 at 21:19









      postmortes

      2,04121119




      2,04121119










      asked Dec 26 '18 at 3:31









      shpindlershpindler

      172




      172






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          3












          $begingroup$

          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            $endgroup$
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:29










          • $begingroup$
            Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:34










          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:25












          • $begingroup$
            Yes @shpindler, you are right
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:05












          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:24











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3












          $begingroup$

          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            $endgroup$
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:29










          • $begingroup$
            Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:34










          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:25












          • $begingroup$
            Yes @shpindler, you are right
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:05












          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
















          3












          $begingroup$

          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            $endgroup$
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:29










          • $begingroup$
            Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:34










          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:25












          • $begingroup$
            Yes @shpindler, you are right
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:05












          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:24














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 26 '18 at 12:33

























          answered Dec 26 '18 at 12:26









          HermioneHermione

          19619




          19619












          • $begingroup$
            I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            $endgroup$
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:29










          • $begingroup$
            Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:34










          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:25












          • $begingroup$
            Yes @shpindler, you are right
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:05












          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:24


















          • $begingroup$
            I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            $endgroup$
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:29










          • $begingroup$
            Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 12:34










          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:25












          • $begingroup$
            Yes @shpindler, you are right
            $endgroup$
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:05












          • $begingroup$
            @Hermione, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 '18 at 17:24
















          $begingroup$
          I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
          $endgroup$
          – Jonas Lenz
          Dec 26 '18 at 12:29




          $begingroup$
          I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
          $endgroup$
          – Jonas Lenz
          Dec 26 '18 at 12:29












          $begingroup$
          Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Hermione
          Dec 26 '18 at 12:34




          $begingroup$
          Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Hermione
          Dec 26 '18 at 12:34












          $begingroup$
          @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
          $endgroup$
          – shpindler
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:25






          $begingroup$
          @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
          $endgroup$
          – shpindler
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:25














          $begingroup$
          Yes @shpindler, you are right
          $endgroup$
          – Hermione
          Dec 26 '18 at 17:05






          $begingroup$
          Yes @shpindler, you are right
          $endgroup$
          – Hermione
          Dec 26 '18 at 17:05














          $begingroup$
          @Hermione, thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – shpindler
          Dec 26 '18 at 17:24




          $begingroup$
          @Hermione, thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – shpindler
          Dec 26 '18 at 17:24


















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