Tangent space of a set [closed]












1












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Let $P=leftlbrace (x,0):xinmathbb{R} wedge x<1rightrbrace$. What are the tangent space and
the orthogonal complement of the tangent space?










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closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, David G. Stork, John Douma, Travis, Xander Henderson Jan 15 at 5:07


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Adrian Keister, David G. Stork, John Douma, Travis, Xander Henderson

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.





















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $P=leftlbrace (x,0):xinmathbb{R} wedge x<1rightrbrace$. What are the tangent space and
    the orthogonal complement of the tangent space?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$



    closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, David G. Stork, John Douma, Travis, Xander Henderson Jan 15 at 5:07


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Adrian Keister, David G. Stork, John Douma, Travis, Xander Henderson

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.



















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $P=leftlbrace (x,0):xinmathbb{R} wedge x<1rightrbrace$. What are the tangent space and
      the orthogonal complement of the tangent space?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $P=leftlbrace (x,0):xinmathbb{R} wedge x<1rightrbrace$. What are the tangent space and
      the orthogonal complement of the tangent space?







      differential-geometry riemannian-geometry






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 14 at 19:34









      Anemath2Anemath2

      122




      122




      closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, David G. Stork, John Douma, Travis, Xander Henderson Jan 15 at 5:07


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Adrian Keister, David G. Stork, John Douma, Travis, Xander Henderson

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







      closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, David G. Stork, John Douma, Travis, Xander Henderson Jan 15 at 5:07


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Adrian Keister, David G. Stork, John Douma, Travis, Xander Henderson

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          0












          $begingroup$

          An atlas for your 1-manifold M is simply ${(M,phi:=proj_1)}$ where proj_1 is the projection on first factor.
          So the tangent space in a point $x_0$ is



          $T_{x_0}M={afrac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0}: ain mathbb{R}}$



          Now we can calculate the orthogonal complement of $T_{x_0}M$ in $T_{x_0}mathbb{R}^2$ with respect the flat metric.



          The differential with respect the inclusion map $i$ is



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial gcirc i}{partial phi}|_{x_0}=frac{partial g}{partial x}_{(x_0,0)}+0 frac{partial g}{partial y}$



          for every germs $gin U_{(x_0,0)}$ on $mathbb{R}^2$



          So



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial }{partial x}|_{(x_0,0)}$



          and the orthogonal complement is



          ${bfrac{partial}{partial y}|_{x_0}: bin mathbb{R}}$



          with $x_0in M$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Soory, I do not understand who are the a and b.
            $endgroup$
            – Anemath2
            Jan 14 at 20:18










          • $begingroup$
            So the orthogonal complement at $x=2$ is $2partial_y$, even though the set is empty at $x=2$? Interesting.
            $endgroup$
            – Fly by Night
            Jan 14 at 20:23












          • $begingroup$
            I corrected it,sorry
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:26










          • $begingroup$
            @Anemath2 the tangent space must be a 1-dimensional vector space.. so they are simply coefficient
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:27










          • $begingroup$
            What is the problem? I corrected it
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:32


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          An atlas for your 1-manifold M is simply ${(M,phi:=proj_1)}$ where proj_1 is the projection on first factor.
          So the tangent space in a point $x_0$ is



          $T_{x_0}M={afrac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0}: ain mathbb{R}}$



          Now we can calculate the orthogonal complement of $T_{x_0}M$ in $T_{x_0}mathbb{R}^2$ with respect the flat metric.



          The differential with respect the inclusion map $i$ is



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial gcirc i}{partial phi}|_{x_0}=frac{partial g}{partial x}_{(x_0,0)}+0 frac{partial g}{partial y}$



          for every germs $gin U_{(x_0,0)}$ on $mathbb{R}^2$



          So



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial }{partial x}|_{(x_0,0)}$



          and the orthogonal complement is



          ${bfrac{partial}{partial y}|_{x_0}: bin mathbb{R}}$



          with $x_0in M$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Soory, I do not understand who are the a and b.
            $endgroup$
            – Anemath2
            Jan 14 at 20:18










          • $begingroup$
            So the orthogonal complement at $x=2$ is $2partial_y$, even though the set is empty at $x=2$? Interesting.
            $endgroup$
            – Fly by Night
            Jan 14 at 20:23












          • $begingroup$
            I corrected it,sorry
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:26










          • $begingroup$
            @Anemath2 the tangent space must be a 1-dimensional vector space.. so they are simply coefficient
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:27










          • $begingroup$
            What is the problem? I corrected it
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:32
















          0












          $begingroup$

          An atlas for your 1-manifold M is simply ${(M,phi:=proj_1)}$ where proj_1 is the projection on first factor.
          So the tangent space in a point $x_0$ is



          $T_{x_0}M={afrac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0}: ain mathbb{R}}$



          Now we can calculate the orthogonal complement of $T_{x_0}M$ in $T_{x_0}mathbb{R}^2$ with respect the flat metric.



          The differential with respect the inclusion map $i$ is



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial gcirc i}{partial phi}|_{x_0}=frac{partial g}{partial x}_{(x_0,0)}+0 frac{partial g}{partial y}$



          for every germs $gin U_{(x_0,0)}$ on $mathbb{R}^2$



          So



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial }{partial x}|_{(x_0,0)}$



          and the orthogonal complement is



          ${bfrac{partial}{partial y}|_{x_0}: bin mathbb{R}}$



          with $x_0in M$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Soory, I do not understand who are the a and b.
            $endgroup$
            – Anemath2
            Jan 14 at 20:18










          • $begingroup$
            So the orthogonal complement at $x=2$ is $2partial_y$, even though the set is empty at $x=2$? Interesting.
            $endgroup$
            – Fly by Night
            Jan 14 at 20:23












          • $begingroup$
            I corrected it,sorry
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:26










          • $begingroup$
            @Anemath2 the tangent space must be a 1-dimensional vector space.. so they are simply coefficient
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:27










          • $begingroup$
            What is the problem? I corrected it
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:32














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          An atlas for your 1-manifold M is simply ${(M,phi:=proj_1)}$ where proj_1 is the projection on first factor.
          So the tangent space in a point $x_0$ is



          $T_{x_0}M={afrac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0}: ain mathbb{R}}$



          Now we can calculate the orthogonal complement of $T_{x_0}M$ in $T_{x_0}mathbb{R}^2$ with respect the flat metric.



          The differential with respect the inclusion map $i$ is



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial gcirc i}{partial phi}|_{x_0}=frac{partial g}{partial x}_{(x_0,0)}+0 frac{partial g}{partial y}$



          for every germs $gin U_{(x_0,0)}$ on $mathbb{R}^2$



          So



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial }{partial x}|_{(x_0,0)}$



          and the orthogonal complement is



          ${bfrac{partial}{partial y}|_{x_0}: bin mathbb{R}}$



          with $x_0in M$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          An atlas for your 1-manifold M is simply ${(M,phi:=proj_1)}$ where proj_1 is the projection on first factor.
          So the tangent space in a point $x_0$ is



          $T_{x_0}M={afrac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0}: ain mathbb{R}}$



          Now we can calculate the orthogonal complement of $T_{x_0}M$ in $T_{x_0}mathbb{R}^2$ with respect the flat metric.



          The differential with respect the inclusion map $i$ is



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial gcirc i}{partial phi}|_{x_0}=frac{partial g}{partial x}_{(x_0,0)}+0 frac{partial g}{partial y}$



          for every germs $gin U_{(x_0,0)}$ on $mathbb{R}^2$



          So



          $di_{x_0}(frac{partial}{partial phi}|_{x_0})(g)=frac{partial }{partial x}|_{(x_0,0)}$



          and the orthogonal complement is



          ${bfrac{partial}{partial y}|_{x_0}: bin mathbb{R}}$



          with $x_0in M$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 14 at 20:39

























          answered Jan 14 at 19:48









          Federico FalluccaFederico Fallucca

          2,034210




          2,034210












          • $begingroup$
            Soory, I do not understand who are the a and b.
            $endgroup$
            – Anemath2
            Jan 14 at 20:18










          • $begingroup$
            So the orthogonal complement at $x=2$ is $2partial_y$, even though the set is empty at $x=2$? Interesting.
            $endgroup$
            – Fly by Night
            Jan 14 at 20:23












          • $begingroup$
            I corrected it,sorry
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:26










          • $begingroup$
            @Anemath2 the tangent space must be a 1-dimensional vector space.. so they are simply coefficient
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:27










          • $begingroup$
            What is the problem? I corrected it
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:32


















          • $begingroup$
            Soory, I do not understand who are the a and b.
            $endgroup$
            – Anemath2
            Jan 14 at 20:18










          • $begingroup$
            So the orthogonal complement at $x=2$ is $2partial_y$, even though the set is empty at $x=2$? Interesting.
            $endgroup$
            – Fly by Night
            Jan 14 at 20:23












          • $begingroup$
            I corrected it,sorry
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:26










          • $begingroup$
            @Anemath2 the tangent space must be a 1-dimensional vector space.. so they are simply coefficient
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:27










          • $begingroup$
            What is the problem? I corrected it
            $endgroup$
            – Federico Fallucca
            Jan 14 at 20:32
















          $begingroup$
          Soory, I do not understand who are the a and b.
          $endgroup$
          – Anemath2
          Jan 14 at 20:18




          $begingroup$
          Soory, I do not understand who are the a and b.
          $endgroup$
          – Anemath2
          Jan 14 at 20:18












          $begingroup$
          So the orthogonal complement at $x=2$ is $2partial_y$, even though the set is empty at $x=2$? Interesting.
          $endgroup$
          – Fly by Night
          Jan 14 at 20:23






          $begingroup$
          So the orthogonal complement at $x=2$ is $2partial_y$, even though the set is empty at $x=2$? Interesting.
          $endgroup$
          – Fly by Night
          Jan 14 at 20:23














          $begingroup$
          I corrected it,sorry
          $endgroup$
          – Federico Fallucca
          Jan 14 at 20:26




          $begingroup$
          I corrected it,sorry
          $endgroup$
          – Federico Fallucca
          Jan 14 at 20:26












          $begingroup$
          @Anemath2 the tangent space must be a 1-dimensional vector space.. so they are simply coefficient
          $endgroup$
          – Federico Fallucca
          Jan 14 at 20:27




          $begingroup$
          @Anemath2 the tangent space must be a 1-dimensional vector space.. so they are simply coefficient
          $endgroup$
          – Federico Fallucca
          Jan 14 at 20:27












          $begingroup$
          What is the problem? I corrected it
          $endgroup$
          – Federico Fallucca
          Jan 14 at 20:32




          $begingroup$
          What is the problem? I corrected it
          $endgroup$
          – Federico Fallucca
          Jan 14 at 20:32



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