Is it necessary for a number of the form $4k^2+1$ to have at least one prime factor of the form $4n+1$?












3












$begingroup$



Is it necessary for a number of the form $4k^2+1$ to have at least one prime factor of the form $4n+1$?




I was trying to prove that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$, but to prove it, I need to prove the above statement true.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Even more : EVERY prime factor of such a number must be of the form $4n+1$
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Jan 13 at 15:53












  • $begingroup$
    @Peter I would really appreciate if you provide a proof for that.
    $endgroup$
    – Vibhav Aggarwal
    Jan 13 at 15:55






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Considering quadratic residues, the proof is trivial. Every prime factor $p$ must be odd, and since the number is of the form $n^2+1$ , $-1$ is a so-called quadratic residue mod $p$ , whenever $p$ divides $4k^2+1$ , we can conclude immediately that $p$ must be congruent to $1$ modulo $4$.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Jan 13 at 16:05












  • $begingroup$
    Cf. here
    $endgroup$
    – J. W. Tanner
    Jan 13 at 16:11










  • $begingroup$
    Also there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$ trivially by Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions.
    $endgroup$
    – Tejas Rao
    Jan 16 at 17:12
















3












$begingroup$



Is it necessary for a number of the form $4k^2+1$ to have at least one prime factor of the form $4n+1$?




I was trying to prove that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$, but to prove it, I need to prove the above statement true.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Even more : EVERY prime factor of such a number must be of the form $4n+1$
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Jan 13 at 15:53












  • $begingroup$
    @Peter I would really appreciate if you provide a proof for that.
    $endgroup$
    – Vibhav Aggarwal
    Jan 13 at 15:55






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Considering quadratic residues, the proof is trivial. Every prime factor $p$ must be odd, and since the number is of the form $n^2+1$ , $-1$ is a so-called quadratic residue mod $p$ , whenever $p$ divides $4k^2+1$ , we can conclude immediately that $p$ must be congruent to $1$ modulo $4$.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Jan 13 at 16:05












  • $begingroup$
    Cf. here
    $endgroup$
    – J. W. Tanner
    Jan 13 at 16:11










  • $begingroup$
    Also there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$ trivially by Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions.
    $endgroup$
    – Tejas Rao
    Jan 16 at 17:12














3












3








3





$begingroup$



Is it necessary for a number of the form $4k^2+1$ to have at least one prime factor of the form $4n+1$?




I was trying to prove that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$, but to prove it, I need to prove the above statement true.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Is it necessary for a number of the form $4k^2+1$ to have at least one prime factor of the form $4n+1$?




I was trying to prove that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$, but to prove it, I need to prove the above statement true.







number-theory prime-numbers quadratic-residues






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 13 at 16:15









amWhy

1




1










asked Jan 13 at 15:49









Vibhav AggarwalVibhav Aggarwal

161




161












  • $begingroup$
    Even more : EVERY prime factor of such a number must be of the form $4n+1$
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Jan 13 at 15:53












  • $begingroup$
    @Peter I would really appreciate if you provide a proof for that.
    $endgroup$
    – Vibhav Aggarwal
    Jan 13 at 15:55






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Considering quadratic residues, the proof is trivial. Every prime factor $p$ must be odd, and since the number is of the form $n^2+1$ , $-1$ is a so-called quadratic residue mod $p$ , whenever $p$ divides $4k^2+1$ , we can conclude immediately that $p$ must be congruent to $1$ modulo $4$.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Jan 13 at 16:05












  • $begingroup$
    Cf. here
    $endgroup$
    – J. W. Tanner
    Jan 13 at 16:11










  • $begingroup$
    Also there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$ trivially by Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions.
    $endgroup$
    – Tejas Rao
    Jan 16 at 17:12


















  • $begingroup$
    Even more : EVERY prime factor of such a number must be of the form $4n+1$
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Jan 13 at 15:53












  • $begingroup$
    @Peter I would really appreciate if you provide a proof for that.
    $endgroup$
    – Vibhav Aggarwal
    Jan 13 at 15:55






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Considering quadratic residues, the proof is trivial. Every prime factor $p$ must be odd, and since the number is of the form $n^2+1$ , $-1$ is a so-called quadratic residue mod $p$ , whenever $p$ divides $4k^2+1$ , we can conclude immediately that $p$ must be congruent to $1$ modulo $4$.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Jan 13 at 16:05












  • $begingroup$
    Cf. here
    $endgroup$
    – J. W. Tanner
    Jan 13 at 16:11










  • $begingroup$
    Also there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$ trivially by Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions.
    $endgroup$
    – Tejas Rao
    Jan 16 at 17:12
















$begingroup$
Even more : EVERY prime factor of such a number must be of the form $4n+1$
$endgroup$
– Peter
Jan 13 at 15:53






$begingroup$
Even more : EVERY prime factor of such a number must be of the form $4n+1$
$endgroup$
– Peter
Jan 13 at 15:53














$begingroup$
@Peter I would really appreciate if you provide a proof for that.
$endgroup$
– Vibhav Aggarwal
Jan 13 at 15:55




$begingroup$
@Peter I would really appreciate if you provide a proof for that.
$endgroup$
– Vibhav Aggarwal
Jan 13 at 15:55




3




3




$begingroup$
Considering quadratic residues, the proof is trivial. Every prime factor $p$ must be odd, and since the number is of the form $n^2+1$ , $-1$ is a so-called quadratic residue mod $p$ , whenever $p$ divides $4k^2+1$ , we can conclude immediately that $p$ must be congruent to $1$ modulo $4$.
$endgroup$
– Peter
Jan 13 at 16:05






$begingroup$
Considering quadratic residues, the proof is trivial. Every prime factor $p$ must be odd, and since the number is of the form $n^2+1$ , $-1$ is a so-called quadratic residue mod $p$ , whenever $p$ divides $4k^2+1$ , we can conclude immediately that $p$ must be congruent to $1$ modulo $4$.
$endgroup$
– Peter
Jan 13 at 16:05














$begingroup$
Cf. here
$endgroup$
– J. W. Tanner
Jan 13 at 16:11




$begingroup$
Cf. here
$endgroup$
– J. W. Tanner
Jan 13 at 16:11












$begingroup$
Also there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$ trivially by Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions.
$endgroup$
– Tejas Rao
Jan 16 at 17:12




$begingroup$
Also there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$ trivially by Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions.
$endgroup$
– Tejas Rao
Jan 16 at 17:12










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