Is this a counterexample?












2












$begingroup$


Suppose $K $ is a field and $overline K $ an algebraic closure. Let $f $ be a $K $-automorphism of $overline K$, let $L$ be the subfield of $overline K $ fixed by $f $. In this post : (link), they want to prove that every finite extension of $L $ is cyclic (and hence separable).



Isn't this a counterexample ?



Let $p$ be an odd prime, $K= mathbb F_p (t^{2p}) $. Then the polynomial $X^{2p}-t^{2p} $ is irreducible over $K $ with exactly two roots $pm t$ in $overline K $. So there is a $K $-automorphism $f $ of $mathbb F_p (t) $ that sends $t $ to $-t $. This automorphism can be extended to an automorphism of $overline K $.



Now, $L $ (the fixed field defined above) does not contain $t $ (since $f (t)neq t $). So the extension $L(t)/L $ is finite, but not separable as $t $ is not separable.



Is this reasoning correct ? Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Suppose $K $ is a field and $overline K $ an algebraic closure. Let $f $ be a $K $-automorphism of $overline K$, let $L$ be the subfield of $overline K $ fixed by $f $. In this post : (link), they want to prove that every finite extension of $L $ is cyclic (and hence separable).



    Isn't this a counterexample ?



    Let $p$ be an odd prime, $K= mathbb F_p (t^{2p}) $. Then the polynomial $X^{2p}-t^{2p} $ is irreducible over $K $ with exactly two roots $pm t$ in $overline K $. So there is a $K $-automorphism $f $ of $mathbb F_p (t) $ that sends $t $ to $-t $. This automorphism can be extended to an automorphism of $overline K $.



    Now, $L $ (the fixed field defined above) does not contain $t $ (since $f (t)neq t $). So the extension $L(t)/L $ is finite, but not separable as $t $ is not separable.



    Is this reasoning correct ? Thank you.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Suppose $K $ is a field and $overline K $ an algebraic closure. Let $f $ be a $K $-automorphism of $overline K$, let $L$ be the subfield of $overline K $ fixed by $f $. In this post : (link), they want to prove that every finite extension of $L $ is cyclic (and hence separable).



      Isn't this a counterexample ?



      Let $p$ be an odd prime, $K= mathbb F_p (t^{2p}) $. Then the polynomial $X^{2p}-t^{2p} $ is irreducible over $K $ with exactly two roots $pm t$ in $overline K $. So there is a $K $-automorphism $f $ of $mathbb F_p (t) $ that sends $t $ to $-t $. This automorphism can be extended to an automorphism of $overline K $.



      Now, $L $ (the fixed field defined above) does not contain $t $ (since $f (t)neq t $). So the extension $L(t)/L $ is finite, but not separable as $t $ is not separable.



      Is this reasoning correct ? Thank you.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Suppose $K $ is a field and $overline K $ an algebraic closure. Let $f $ be a $K $-automorphism of $overline K$, let $L$ be the subfield of $overline K $ fixed by $f $. In this post : (link), they want to prove that every finite extension of $L $ is cyclic (and hence separable).



      Isn't this a counterexample ?



      Let $p$ be an odd prime, $K= mathbb F_p (t^{2p}) $. Then the polynomial $X^{2p}-t^{2p} $ is irreducible over $K $ with exactly two roots $pm t$ in $overline K $. So there is a $K $-automorphism $f $ of $mathbb F_p (t) $ that sends $t $ to $-t $. This automorphism can be extended to an automorphism of $overline K $.



      Now, $L $ (the fixed field defined above) does not contain $t $ (since $f (t)neq t $). So the extension $L(t)/L $ is finite, but not separable as $t $ is not separable.



      Is this reasoning correct ? Thank you.







      field-theory galois-theory cyclic-groups galois-extensions separable-extension






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      edited Jan 14 at 19:41









      Jyrki Lahtonen

      109k13169372




      109k13169372










      asked Jan 13 at 21:47









      FriedrichFriedrich

      542112




      542112






















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          $begingroup$

          That is not a counterexample.



          We have
          $$
          f(t^2)=f(t)^2=(-t)^2=t^2,
          $$

          so $t^2in L$.



          And $t$ is separable over $Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$ because the zeros of $X^2-t^2=(X-t)(X+t)$ are simple. Hence $t$ is also separable over $L$.



          Seems to me that confusion was to think of separability being an intrinsic property of an element when, in fact, it says something about an algebraic element over a certain field. While $t$ is not separable over the smaller field $K$, it is separable over the bigger field $L$.





          It is not difficult to show that in your setting actually $L=Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            $begingroup$

            That is not a counterexample.



            We have
            $$
            f(t^2)=f(t)^2=(-t)^2=t^2,
            $$

            so $t^2in L$.



            And $t$ is separable over $Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$ because the zeros of $X^2-t^2=(X-t)(X+t)$ are simple. Hence $t$ is also separable over $L$.



            Seems to me that confusion was to think of separability being an intrinsic property of an element when, in fact, it says something about an algebraic element over a certain field. While $t$ is not separable over the smaller field $K$, it is separable over the bigger field $L$.





            It is not difficult to show that in your setting actually $L=Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              That is not a counterexample.



              We have
              $$
              f(t^2)=f(t)^2=(-t)^2=t^2,
              $$

              so $t^2in L$.



              And $t$ is separable over $Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$ because the zeros of $X^2-t^2=(X-t)(X+t)$ are simple. Hence $t$ is also separable over $L$.



              Seems to me that confusion was to think of separability being an intrinsic property of an element when, in fact, it says something about an algebraic element over a certain field. While $t$ is not separable over the smaller field $K$, it is separable over the bigger field $L$.





              It is not difficult to show that in your setting actually $L=Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                That is not a counterexample.



                We have
                $$
                f(t^2)=f(t)^2=(-t)^2=t^2,
                $$

                so $t^2in L$.



                And $t$ is separable over $Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$ because the zeros of $X^2-t^2=(X-t)(X+t)$ are simple. Hence $t$ is also separable over $L$.



                Seems to me that confusion was to think of separability being an intrinsic property of an element when, in fact, it says something about an algebraic element over a certain field. While $t$ is not separable over the smaller field $K$, it is separable over the bigger field $L$.





                It is not difficult to show that in your setting actually $L=Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                That is not a counterexample.



                We have
                $$
                f(t^2)=f(t)^2=(-t)^2=t^2,
                $$

                so $t^2in L$.



                And $t$ is separable over $Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$ because the zeros of $X^2-t^2=(X-t)(X+t)$ are simple. Hence $t$ is also separable over $L$.



                Seems to me that confusion was to think of separability being an intrinsic property of an element when, in fact, it says something about an algebraic element over a certain field. While $t$ is not separable over the smaller field $K$, it is separable over the bigger field $L$.





                It is not difficult to show that in your setting actually $L=Bbb{F}_p(t^2)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 14 at 19:38









                Jyrki LahtonenJyrki Lahtonen

                109k13169372




                109k13169372






























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