Proof that for every bounded open subset of a $n$-dimensional euclidean space, there exists a point in such...












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If $X=Bbb R^n$ is equipped with the usual topology $tau$ and the usual metric $d$, and we define the function $pi_U:Xto X$ for every bounded $Uintau $ as



$$pi_U(p)=int_U d(x,p)dx$$



I need to prove that for every bounded $Uintau$ there exists a $pin X$ such that for all $qin X$ it holds that $pi_U(p)<pi_U(q)$ i.e. that $pi_U$ has a unique point that attains its minimum value. I need to reach to a contradiction when defining two points with said property, but cannot find any, any help would be appreciated.



An example would be $pi_X$ where $X$ is the 2d disk or radius $r$(the set of points such that its norm is less than $r$) centered at $(0,0)$, then $(0,0)$ is a point with said property. Same with a rectangle of length $2r$ centered at the origin.










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  • $begingroup$
    Are you integrating with respect to the Lebesgue measure? If that's the case then wouldn't we have $pi_K(p)=0$ for any $pinBbb R^n$ if $K$ is a finite set?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Jan 13 at 23:59










  • $begingroup$
    @BigbearZzz But a finite set is not an open set in the usual topology.
    $endgroup$
    – Garmekain
    Jan 14 at 0:05










  • $begingroup$
    But didn't you specify that $U$ is compact? How can $U$ be both compact and open?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Jan 14 at 0:07










  • $begingroup$
    @BigbearZzz $U$ should be closed, sorry.
    $endgroup$
    – Garmekain
    Jan 14 at 0:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is much easier if you integrate the square of the distance function.
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Cohen
    Jan 14 at 0:35
















1












$begingroup$


If $X=Bbb R^n$ is equipped with the usual topology $tau$ and the usual metric $d$, and we define the function $pi_U:Xto X$ for every bounded $Uintau $ as



$$pi_U(p)=int_U d(x,p)dx$$



I need to prove that for every bounded $Uintau$ there exists a $pin X$ such that for all $qin X$ it holds that $pi_U(p)<pi_U(q)$ i.e. that $pi_U$ has a unique point that attains its minimum value. I need to reach to a contradiction when defining two points with said property, but cannot find any, any help would be appreciated.



An example would be $pi_X$ where $X$ is the 2d disk or radius $r$(the set of points such that its norm is less than $r$) centered at $(0,0)$, then $(0,0)$ is a point with said property. Same with a rectangle of length $2r$ centered at the origin.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Are you integrating with respect to the Lebesgue measure? If that's the case then wouldn't we have $pi_K(p)=0$ for any $pinBbb R^n$ if $K$ is a finite set?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Jan 13 at 23:59










  • $begingroup$
    @BigbearZzz But a finite set is not an open set in the usual topology.
    $endgroup$
    – Garmekain
    Jan 14 at 0:05










  • $begingroup$
    But didn't you specify that $U$ is compact? How can $U$ be both compact and open?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Jan 14 at 0:07










  • $begingroup$
    @BigbearZzz $U$ should be closed, sorry.
    $endgroup$
    – Garmekain
    Jan 14 at 0:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is much easier if you integrate the square of the distance function.
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Cohen
    Jan 14 at 0:35














1












1








1





$begingroup$


If $X=Bbb R^n$ is equipped with the usual topology $tau$ and the usual metric $d$, and we define the function $pi_U:Xto X$ for every bounded $Uintau $ as



$$pi_U(p)=int_U d(x,p)dx$$



I need to prove that for every bounded $Uintau$ there exists a $pin X$ such that for all $qin X$ it holds that $pi_U(p)<pi_U(q)$ i.e. that $pi_U$ has a unique point that attains its minimum value. I need to reach to a contradiction when defining two points with said property, but cannot find any, any help would be appreciated.



An example would be $pi_X$ where $X$ is the 2d disk or radius $r$(the set of points such that its norm is less than $r$) centered at $(0,0)$, then $(0,0)$ is a point with said property. Same with a rectangle of length $2r$ centered at the origin.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




If $X=Bbb R^n$ is equipped with the usual topology $tau$ and the usual metric $d$, and we define the function $pi_U:Xto X$ for every bounded $Uintau $ as



$$pi_U(p)=int_U d(x,p)dx$$



I need to prove that for every bounded $Uintau$ there exists a $pin X$ such that for all $qin X$ it holds that $pi_U(p)<pi_U(q)$ i.e. that $pi_U$ has a unique point that attains its minimum value. I need to reach to a contradiction when defining two points with said property, but cannot find any, any help would be appreciated.



An example would be $pi_X$ where $X$ is the 2d disk or radius $r$(the set of points such that its norm is less than $r$) centered at $(0,0)$, then $(0,0)$ is a point with said property. Same with a rectangle of length $2r$ centered at the origin.







calculus metric-spaces






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edited Jan 15 at 0:58







Garmekain

















asked Jan 13 at 16:27









GarmekainGarmekain

1,386720




1,386720












  • $begingroup$
    Are you integrating with respect to the Lebesgue measure? If that's the case then wouldn't we have $pi_K(p)=0$ for any $pinBbb R^n$ if $K$ is a finite set?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Jan 13 at 23:59










  • $begingroup$
    @BigbearZzz But a finite set is not an open set in the usual topology.
    $endgroup$
    – Garmekain
    Jan 14 at 0:05










  • $begingroup$
    But didn't you specify that $U$ is compact? How can $U$ be both compact and open?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Jan 14 at 0:07










  • $begingroup$
    @BigbearZzz $U$ should be closed, sorry.
    $endgroup$
    – Garmekain
    Jan 14 at 0:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is much easier if you integrate the square of the distance function.
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Cohen
    Jan 14 at 0:35


















  • $begingroup$
    Are you integrating with respect to the Lebesgue measure? If that's the case then wouldn't we have $pi_K(p)=0$ for any $pinBbb R^n$ if $K$ is a finite set?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Jan 13 at 23:59










  • $begingroup$
    @BigbearZzz But a finite set is not an open set in the usual topology.
    $endgroup$
    – Garmekain
    Jan 14 at 0:05










  • $begingroup$
    But didn't you specify that $U$ is compact? How can $U$ be both compact and open?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Jan 14 at 0:07










  • $begingroup$
    @BigbearZzz $U$ should be closed, sorry.
    $endgroup$
    – Garmekain
    Jan 14 at 0:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is much easier if you integrate the square of the distance function.
    $endgroup$
    – Moishe Cohen
    Jan 14 at 0:35
















$begingroup$
Are you integrating with respect to the Lebesgue measure? If that's the case then wouldn't we have $pi_K(p)=0$ for any $pinBbb R^n$ if $K$ is a finite set?
$endgroup$
– BigbearZzz
Jan 13 at 23:59




$begingroup$
Are you integrating with respect to the Lebesgue measure? If that's the case then wouldn't we have $pi_K(p)=0$ for any $pinBbb R^n$ if $K$ is a finite set?
$endgroup$
– BigbearZzz
Jan 13 at 23:59












$begingroup$
@BigbearZzz But a finite set is not an open set in the usual topology.
$endgroup$
– Garmekain
Jan 14 at 0:05




$begingroup$
@BigbearZzz But a finite set is not an open set in the usual topology.
$endgroup$
– Garmekain
Jan 14 at 0:05












$begingroup$
But didn't you specify that $U$ is compact? How can $U$ be both compact and open?
$endgroup$
– BigbearZzz
Jan 14 at 0:07




$begingroup$
But didn't you specify that $U$ is compact? How can $U$ be both compact and open?
$endgroup$
– BigbearZzz
Jan 14 at 0:07












$begingroup$
@BigbearZzz $U$ should be closed, sorry.
$endgroup$
– Garmekain
Jan 14 at 0:08




$begingroup$
@BigbearZzz $U$ should be closed, sorry.
$endgroup$
– Garmekain
Jan 14 at 0:08




1




1




$begingroup$
This is much easier if you integrate the square of the distance function.
$endgroup$
– Moishe Cohen
Jan 14 at 0:35




$begingroup$
This is much easier if you integrate the square of the distance function.
$endgroup$
– Moishe Cohen
Jan 14 at 0:35










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This is not true in the general case. Suppose $n=1$ and $U=(-3,-1)cup(1,3)$, clearly $U$ is an open bounded subset of $Bbb R$. Then every value $-1<y<1$ of $int_Ud(x,y)dx$ will yield the minimum value of the function, $8$, so $pi_{(-3,-1)cup(1,3)}$ has not a unique value that attains its minimum value, there are actually uncountable many of them.






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    $begingroup$

    This is not true in the general case. Suppose $n=1$ and $U=(-3,-1)cup(1,3)$, clearly $U$ is an open bounded subset of $Bbb R$. Then every value $-1<y<1$ of $int_Ud(x,y)dx$ will yield the minimum value of the function, $8$, so $pi_{(-3,-1)cup(1,3)}$ has not a unique value that attains its minimum value, there are actually uncountable many of them.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      This is not true in the general case. Suppose $n=1$ and $U=(-3,-1)cup(1,3)$, clearly $U$ is an open bounded subset of $Bbb R$. Then every value $-1<y<1$ of $int_Ud(x,y)dx$ will yield the minimum value of the function, $8$, so $pi_{(-3,-1)cup(1,3)}$ has not a unique value that attains its minimum value, there are actually uncountable many of them.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        This is not true in the general case. Suppose $n=1$ and $U=(-3,-1)cup(1,3)$, clearly $U$ is an open bounded subset of $Bbb R$. Then every value $-1<y<1$ of $int_Ud(x,y)dx$ will yield the minimum value of the function, $8$, so $pi_{(-3,-1)cup(1,3)}$ has not a unique value that attains its minimum value, there are actually uncountable many of them.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        This is not true in the general case. Suppose $n=1$ and $U=(-3,-1)cup(1,3)$, clearly $U$ is an open bounded subset of $Bbb R$. Then every value $-1<y<1$ of $int_Ud(x,y)dx$ will yield the minimum value of the function, $8$, so $pi_{(-3,-1)cup(1,3)}$ has not a unique value that attains its minimum value, there are actually uncountable many of them.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 17 at 13:35









        GarmekainGarmekain

        1,386720




        1,386720






























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