Residue and Laurent Series, is this valid?












1












$begingroup$


something with the Laurent series is confusing me, first I'll give a background of what I think I know.



If $z_0$ is an isolated singularity of a function $f$ we can find the $Res(f, z_0)$ by finding the coefficient of the $frac{1}{z-z_0}$ of the laurent series expansion.
So for example in $$f(z) = z + frac{i}{z-1}$$ If we want to find $Res(f, 1)$ we can see that the residue is $i$ from the above definition.



However, if instead we expand the series in $z_0 = 0$ we get a Taylor Series valid for $|z| < 1$ that goes like $$f(z) = z - isum_{n=0}^infty z^n$$ and a Laurent series expansion valid for $|z| > 1$ which is $$f(z) = z + sum_{n=0}^infty frac{i}{z^{n+1}}$$ and if I wanted I could just make $n = 0$ and I would get the same $i$, which is the $Res(f, 1)$, and it doesn't happen just on this exercise. Is this valid or to get the $Res(f, z_0)$ I do really need powers of $z-z_0$ and this is all just a coincidence? Everything I read says that to get the residue at $z_0$ I need to have powers of $z - z_0$, however most of the times using a series of $z^n$ works as I get the same value, by using the expansion valid for $|z| > z_0$ and it gives me the correct value of $Res(f, z_0)$.



Would appreciate clarification on this subject as I feel I'm missing something here.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    But is it valid for any expansion? I was under the impression that it had to be powers of (z-z0) since it's what I've read on most places.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:34










  • $begingroup$
    There is a single simple pole at $z=1$ and a corresponding residue associated with it. There is no pole at $z=0$. Note that for $|z|<1$ and $|z|>1$ you have two series representations. For the latter, $z=0$ is NOT included in the domain. For the former, $z=0$ IS included in the domain and the residue at $z=0$ is $0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Jan 14 at 18:37


















1












$begingroup$


something with the Laurent series is confusing me, first I'll give a background of what I think I know.



If $z_0$ is an isolated singularity of a function $f$ we can find the $Res(f, z_0)$ by finding the coefficient of the $frac{1}{z-z_0}$ of the laurent series expansion.
So for example in $$f(z) = z + frac{i}{z-1}$$ If we want to find $Res(f, 1)$ we can see that the residue is $i$ from the above definition.



However, if instead we expand the series in $z_0 = 0$ we get a Taylor Series valid for $|z| < 1$ that goes like $$f(z) = z - isum_{n=0}^infty z^n$$ and a Laurent series expansion valid for $|z| > 1$ which is $$f(z) = z + sum_{n=0}^infty frac{i}{z^{n+1}}$$ and if I wanted I could just make $n = 0$ and I would get the same $i$, which is the $Res(f, 1)$, and it doesn't happen just on this exercise. Is this valid or to get the $Res(f, z_0)$ I do really need powers of $z-z_0$ and this is all just a coincidence? Everything I read says that to get the residue at $z_0$ I need to have powers of $z - z_0$, however most of the times using a series of $z^n$ works as I get the same value, by using the expansion valid for $|z| > z_0$ and it gives me the correct value of $Res(f, z_0)$.



Would appreciate clarification on this subject as I feel I'm missing something here.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    But is it valid for any expansion? I was under the impression that it had to be powers of (z-z0) since it's what I've read on most places.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:34










  • $begingroup$
    There is a single simple pole at $z=1$ and a corresponding residue associated with it. There is no pole at $z=0$. Note that for $|z|<1$ and $|z|>1$ you have two series representations. For the latter, $z=0$ is NOT included in the domain. For the former, $z=0$ IS included in the domain and the residue at $z=0$ is $0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Jan 14 at 18:37
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


something with the Laurent series is confusing me, first I'll give a background of what I think I know.



If $z_0$ is an isolated singularity of a function $f$ we can find the $Res(f, z_0)$ by finding the coefficient of the $frac{1}{z-z_0}$ of the laurent series expansion.
So for example in $$f(z) = z + frac{i}{z-1}$$ If we want to find $Res(f, 1)$ we can see that the residue is $i$ from the above definition.



However, if instead we expand the series in $z_0 = 0$ we get a Taylor Series valid for $|z| < 1$ that goes like $$f(z) = z - isum_{n=0}^infty z^n$$ and a Laurent series expansion valid for $|z| > 1$ which is $$f(z) = z + sum_{n=0}^infty frac{i}{z^{n+1}}$$ and if I wanted I could just make $n = 0$ and I would get the same $i$, which is the $Res(f, 1)$, and it doesn't happen just on this exercise. Is this valid or to get the $Res(f, z_0)$ I do really need powers of $z-z_0$ and this is all just a coincidence? Everything I read says that to get the residue at $z_0$ I need to have powers of $z - z_0$, however most of the times using a series of $z^n$ works as I get the same value, by using the expansion valid for $|z| > z_0$ and it gives me the correct value of $Res(f, z_0)$.



Would appreciate clarification on this subject as I feel I'm missing something here.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




something with the Laurent series is confusing me, first I'll give a background of what I think I know.



If $z_0$ is an isolated singularity of a function $f$ we can find the $Res(f, z_0)$ by finding the coefficient of the $frac{1}{z-z_0}$ of the laurent series expansion.
So for example in $$f(z) = z + frac{i}{z-1}$$ If we want to find $Res(f, 1)$ we can see that the residue is $i$ from the above definition.



However, if instead we expand the series in $z_0 = 0$ we get a Taylor Series valid for $|z| < 1$ that goes like $$f(z) = z - isum_{n=0}^infty z^n$$ and a Laurent series expansion valid for $|z| > 1$ which is $$f(z) = z + sum_{n=0}^infty frac{i}{z^{n+1}}$$ and if I wanted I could just make $n = 0$ and I would get the same $i$, which is the $Res(f, 1)$, and it doesn't happen just on this exercise. Is this valid or to get the $Res(f, z_0)$ I do really need powers of $z-z_0$ and this is all just a coincidence? Everything I read says that to get the residue at $z_0$ I need to have powers of $z - z_0$, however most of the times using a series of $z^n$ works as I get the same value, by using the expansion valid for $|z| > z_0$ and it gives me the correct value of $Res(f, z_0)$.



Would appreciate clarification on this subject as I feel I'm missing something here.







complex-analysis taylor-expansion residue-calculus laurent-series






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asked Jan 14 at 18:28









João DavidJoão David

255




255












  • $begingroup$
    But is it valid for any expansion? I was under the impression that it had to be powers of (z-z0) since it's what I've read on most places.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:34










  • $begingroup$
    There is a single simple pole at $z=1$ and a corresponding residue associated with it. There is no pole at $z=0$. Note that for $|z|<1$ and $|z|>1$ you have two series representations. For the latter, $z=0$ is NOT included in the domain. For the former, $z=0$ IS included in the domain and the residue at $z=0$ is $0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Jan 14 at 18:37




















  • $begingroup$
    But is it valid for any expansion? I was under the impression that it had to be powers of (z-z0) since it's what I've read on most places.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:34










  • $begingroup$
    There is a single simple pole at $z=1$ and a corresponding residue associated with it. There is no pole at $z=0$. Note that for $|z|<1$ and $|z|>1$ you have two series representations. For the latter, $z=0$ is NOT included in the domain. For the former, $z=0$ IS included in the domain and the residue at $z=0$ is $0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Jan 14 at 18:37


















$begingroup$
But is it valid for any expansion? I was under the impression that it had to be powers of (z-z0) since it's what I've read on most places.
$endgroup$
– João David
Jan 14 at 18:34




$begingroup$
But is it valid for any expansion? I was under the impression that it had to be powers of (z-z0) since it's what I've read on most places.
$endgroup$
– João David
Jan 14 at 18:34












$begingroup$
There is a single simple pole at $z=1$ and a corresponding residue associated with it. There is no pole at $z=0$. Note that for $|z|<1$ and $|z|>1$ you have two series representations. For the latter, $z=0$ is NOT included in the domain. For the former, $z=0$ IS included in the domain and the residue at $z=0$ is $0$.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 14 at 18:37






$begingroup$
There is a single simple pole at $z=1$ and a corresponding residue associated with it. There is no pole at $z=0$. Note that for $|z|<1$ and $|z|>1$ you have two series representations. For the latter, $z=0$ is NOT included in the domain. For the former, $z=0$ IS included in the domain and the residue at $z=0$ is $0$.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Jan 14 at 18:37












1 Answer
1






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0












$begingroup$

That will fail in most cases. For instance,$$operatorname{res}_{z=1}left(frac1{1-z^2}right)=-frac12,$$but if you apply your method, then you will get $0$, of course, sine $dfrac1{1-z^2}$ is an even function.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I checked wolfram since I couldn't calculate the expansions on that one myself, and it seems to check out, thanks for giving an example where this clearly fails! I guess the ones that were given to me were all similar and I was getting that result. Just as a curiosity, in the example I've given, would there even be any reason to calculate Laurent's series with powers of simply z? Since I couldn't get the residue on 1 that way.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:48













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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

That will fail in most cases. For instance,$$operatorname{res}_{z=1}left(frac1{1-z^2}right)=-frac12,$$but if you apply your method, then you will get $0$, of course, sine $dfrac1{1-z^2}$ is an even function.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I checked wolfram since I couldn't calculate the expansions on that one myself, and it seems to check out, thanks for giving an example where this clearly fails! I guess the ones that were given to me were all similar and I was getting that result. Just as a curiosity, in the example I've given, would there even be any reason to calculate Laurent's series with powers of simply z? Since I couldn't get the residue on 1 that way.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:48


















0












$begingroup$

That will fail in most cases. For instance,$$operatorname{res}_{z=1}left(frac1{1-z^2}right)=-frac12,$$but if you apply your method, then you will get $0$, of course, sine $dfrac1{1-z^2}$ is an even function.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I checked wolfram since I couldn't calculate the expansions on that one myself, and it seems to check out, thanks for giving an example where this clearly fails! I guess the ones that were given to me were all similar and I was getting that result. Just as a curiosity, in the example I've given, would there even be any reason to calculate Laurent's series with powers of simply z? Since I couldn't get the residue on 1 that way.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:48
















0












0








0





$begingroup$

That will fail in most cases. For instance,$$operatorname{res}_{z=1}left(frac1{1-z^2}right)=-frac12,$$but if you apply your method, then you will get $0$, of course, sine $dfrac1{1-z^2}$ is an even function.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



That will fail in most cases. For instance,$$operatorname{res}_{z=1}left(frac1{1-z^2}right)=-frac12,$$but if you apply your method, then you will get $0$, of course, sine $dfrac1{1-z^2}$ is an even function.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 14 at 18:35









José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

162k22128232




162k22128232












  • $begingroup$
    I checked wolfram since I couldn't calculate the expansions on that one myself, and it seems to check out, thanks for giving an example where this clearly fails! I guess the ones that were given to me were all similar and I was getting that result. Just as a curiosity, in the example I've given, would there even be any reason to calculate Laurent's series with powers of simply z? Since I couldn't get the residue on 1 that way.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:48




















  • $begingroup$
    I checked wolfram since I couldn't calculate the expansions on that one myself, and it seems to check out, thanks for giving an example where this clearly fails! I guess the ones that were given to me were all similar and I was getting that result. Just as a curiosity, in the example I've given, would there even be any reason to calculate Laurent's series with powers of simply z? Since I couldn't get the residue on 1 that way.
    $endgroup$
    – João David
    Jan 14 at 18:48


















$begingroup$
I checked wolfram since I couldn't calculate the expansions on that one myself, and it seems to check out, thanks for giving an example where this clearly fails! I guess the ones that were given to me were all similar and I was getting that result. Just as a curiosity, in the example I've given, would there even be any reason to calculate Laurent's series with powers of simply z? Since I couldn't get the residue on 1 that way.
$endgroup$
– João David
Jan 14 at 18:48






$begingroup$
I checked wolfram since I couldn't calculate the expansions on that one myself, and it seems to check out, thanks for giving an example where this clearly fails! I guess the ones that were given to me were all similar and I was getting that result. Just as a curiosity, in the example I've given, would there even be any reason to calculate Laurent's series with powers of simply z? Since I couldn't get the residue on 1 that way.
$endgroup$
– João David
Jan 14 at 18:48




















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