Kahler metric and $(1,1)$- forms












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I am following this set of lecture notes. On page 3, the author is considering a metric on a complex Kahler manifold of dimension $n$, which is denoted by $g_{alpha, bar{beta}} = partial_{alpha}partial_{bar{beta}} K(vec{z}, vec{bar{z}})$. Immediately afterwards, the author writes down a (1,1)-form given by $J = g_{alpha, bar{beta}} dz^{alpha} wedge dbar{z}^{bar{beta}}$, which he shows is a $(1,1)$ form belonging to $H^{(1,1)}$ cohomology class, and subsequently defines a Kahler class.



My question is this, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so then how can it be used to construct a (1,1)-form, which is antisymmetric in its indices? What am I missing here? Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?










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  • $begingroup$
    Is the author missing a $wedge$ sign? Some authors just don't bother with them...
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 24 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown Hi, the author wasn't missing it but I made a typo, thanks for that. My question revolves around the wedge product only, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so in that case how are we using it in a wedge product?
    $endgroup$
    – Bruce Lee
    Jan 24 at 6:40










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?
    $endgroup$
    – Bruce Lee
    Jan 24 at 6:48
















1












$begingroup$


I am following this set of lecture notes. On page 3, the author is considering a metric on a complex Kahler manifold of dimension $n$, which is denoted by $g_{alpha, bar{beta}} = partial_{alpha}partial_{bar{beta}} K(vec{z}, vec{bar{z}})$. Immediately afterwards, the author writes down a (1,1)-form given by $J = g_{alpha, bar{beta}} dz^{alpha} wedge dbar{z}^{bar{beta}}$, which he shows is a $(1,1)$ form belonging to $H^{(1,1)}$ cohomology class, and subsequently defines a Kahler class.



My question is this, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so then how can it be used to construct a (1,1)-form, which is antisymmetric in its indices? What am I missing here? Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Is the author missing a $wedge$ sign? Some authors just don't bother with them...
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 24 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown Hi, the author wasn't missing it but I made a typo, thanks for that. My question revolves around the wedge product only, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so in that case how are we using it in a wedge product?
    $endgroup$
    – Bruce Lee
    Jan 24 at 6:40










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?
    $endgroup$
    – Bruce Lee
    Jan 24 at 6:48














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I am following this set of lecture notes. On page 3, the author is considering a metric on a complex Kahler manifold of dimension $n$, which is denoted by $g_{alpha, bar{beta}} = partial_{alpha}partial_{bar{beta}} K(vec{z}, vec{bar{z}})$. Immediately afterwards, the author writes down a (1,1)-form given by $J = g_{alpha, bar{beta}} dz^{alpha} wedge dbar{z}^{bar{beta}}$, which he shows is a $(1,1)$ form belonging to $H^{(1,1)}$ cohomology class, and subsequently defines a Kahler class.



My question is this, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so then how can it be used to construct a (1,1)-form, which is antisymmetric in its indices? What am I missing here? Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am following this set of lecture notes. On page 3, the author is considering a metric on a complex Kahler manifold of dimension $n$, which is denoted by $g_{alpha, bar{beta}} = partial_{alpha}partial_{bar{beta}} K(vec{z}, vec{bar{z}})$. Immediately afterwards, the author writes down a (1,1)-form given by $J = g_{alpha, bar{beta}} dz^{alpha} wedge dbar{z}^{bar{beta}}$, which he shows is a $(1,1)$ form belonging to $H^{(1,1)}$ cohomology class, and subsequently defines a Kahler class.



My question is this, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so then how can it be used to construct a (1,1)-form, which is antisymmetric in its indices? What am I missing here? Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?







differential-geometry kahler-manifolds complex-manifolds






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edited Jan 24 at 6:50







Bruce Lee

















asked Jan 24 at 6:30









Bruce LeeBruce Lee

187




187












  • $begingroup$
    Is the author missing a $wedge$ sign? Some authors just don't bother with them...
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 24 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown Hi, the author wasn't missing it but I made a typo, thanks for that. My question revolves around the wedge product only, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so in that case how are we using it in a wedge product?
    $endgroup$
    – Bruce Lee
    Jan 24 at 6:40










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?
    $endgroup$
    – Bruce Lee
    Jan 24 at 6:48


















  • $begingroup$
    Is the author missing a $wedge$ sign? Some authors just don't bother with them...
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 24 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown Hi, the author wasn't missing it but I made a typo, thanks for that. My question revolves around the wedge product only, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so in that case how are we using it in a wedge product?
    $endgroup$
    – Bruce Lee
    Jan 24 at 6:40










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?
    $endgroup$
    – Bruce Lee
    Jan 24 at 6:48
















$begingroup$
Is the author missing a $wedge$ sign? Some authors just don't bother with them...
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 24 at 6:35




$begingroup$
Is the author missing a $wedge$ sign? Some authors just don't bother with them...
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 24 at 6:35












$begingroup$
@LordSharktheUnknown Hi, the author wasn't missing it but I made a typo, thanks for that. My question revolves around the wedge product only, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so in that case how are we using it in a wedge product?
$endgroup$
– Bruce Lee
Jan 24 at 6:40




$begingroup$
@LordSharktheUnknown Hi, the author wasn't missing it but I made a typo, thanks for that. My question revolves around the wedge product only, the metric is symmetric in its indices, so in that case how are we using it in a wedge product?
$endgroup$
– Bruce Lee
Jan 24 at 6:40












$begingroup$
@LordSharktheUnknown Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?
$endgroup$
– Bruce Lee
Jan 24 at 6:48




$begingroup$
@LordSharktheUnknown Is the antisymmetrization independently in the $z$'s and the $bar{z}$'s and hence this is alright?
$endgroup$
– Bruce Lee
Jan 24 at 6:48










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Keep in mind that your $J$ is a product of the symmetric metric by the antisymmetric (1,1)-forms $dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^beta$. A symmetric thing times an antisymmetric thing is antisymmetric. So, for example,
begin{align*}
J(X,Y)=left(g_{alphabar{beta}},dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^betaright)(X,Y) = g_{alphabar{beta}}left( dz^alpha(X)dbar{z}^beta(Y) - dz^alpha(Y)dbar{z}^beta(X)right)
end{align*}

is clearly antisymmetric in $(X,Y)$. To see the indices of $J$ explicitly, compute:
begin{align*}
J_{ibar{j}} = J(partial_i,partial_{bar{j}})
= g_{kbar{ell}}(delta_{ik}delta_{jell}-delta_{iell}delta_{jk}),
end{align*}

where $delta$ denotes the Kronecker delta. Now it's again explicit that $J_{ibar{j}}=-J_{jbar{i}}$.



Just to note, your $J$ is usually called the Kahler form and denoted $omega$. People usually reserve $J$ for the (almost-) complex structure.






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    $begingroup$

    Keep in mind that your $J$ is a product of the symmetric metric by the antisymmetric (1,1)-forms $dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^beta$. A symmetric thing times an antisymmetric thing is antisymmetric. So, for example,
    begin{align*}
    J(X,Y)=left(g_{alphabar{beta}},dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^betaright)(X,Y) = g_{alphabar{beta}}left( dz^alpha(X)dbar{z}^beta(Y) - dz^alpha(Y)dbar{z}^beta(X)right)
    end{align*}

    is clearly antisymmetric in $(X,Y)$. To see the indices of $J$ explicitly, compute:
    begin{align*}
    J_{ibar{j}} = J(partial_i,partial_{bar{j}})
    = g_{kbar{ell}}(delta_{ik}delta_{jell}-delta_{iell}delta_{jk}),
    end{align*}

    where $delta$ denotes the Kronecker delta. Now it's again explicit that $J_{ibar{j}}=-J_{jbar{i}}$.



    Just to note, your $J$ is usually called the Kahler form and denoted $omega$. People usually reserve $J$ for the (almost-) complex structure.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Keep in mind that your $J$ is a product of the symmetric metric by the antisymmetric (1,1)-forms $dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^beta$. A symmetric thing times an antisymmetric thing is antisymmetric. So, for example,
      begin{align*}
      J(X,Y)=left(g_{alphabar{beta}},dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^betaright)(X,Y) = g_{alphabar{beta}}left( dz^alpha(X)dbar{z}^beta(Y) - dz^alpha(Y)dbar{z}^beta(X)right)
      end{align*}

      is clearly antisymmetric in $(X,Y)$. To see the indices of $J$ explicitly, compute:
      begin{align*}
      J_{ibar{j}} = J(partial_i,partial_{bar{j}})
      = g_{kbar{ell}}(delta_{ik}delta_{jell}-delta_{iell}delta_{jk}),
      end{align*}

      where $delta$ denotes the Kronecker delta. Now it's again explicit that $J_{ibar{j}}=-J_{jbar{i}}$.



      Just to note, your $J$ is usually called the Kahler form and denoted $omega$. People usually reserve $J$ for the (almost-) complex structure.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Keep in mind that your $J$ is a product of the symmetric metric by the antisymmetric (1,1)-forms $dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^beta$. A symmetric thing times an antisymmetric thing is antisymmetric. So, for example,
        begin{align*}
        J(X,Y)=left(g_{alphabar{beta}},dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^betaright)(X,Y) = g_{alphabar{beta}}left( dz^alpha(X)dbar{z}^beta(Y) - dz^alpha(Y)dbar{z}^beta(X)right)
        end{align*}

        is clearly antisymmetric in $(X,Y)$. To see the indices of $J$ explicitly, compute:
        begin{align*}
        J_{ibar{j}} = J(partial_i,partial_{bar{j}})
        = g_{kbar{ell}}(delta_{ik}delta_{jell}-delta_{iell}delta_{jk}),
        end{align*}

        where $delta$ denotes the Kronecker delta. Now it's again explicit that $J_{ibar{j}}=-J_{jbar{i}}$.



        Just to note, your $J$ is usually called the Kahler form and denoted $omega$. People usually reserve $J$ for the (almost-) complex structure.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Keep in mind that your $J$ is a product of the symmetric metric by the antisymmetric (1,1)-forms $dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^beta$. A symmetric thing times an antisymmetric thing is antisymmetric. So, for example,
        begin{align*}
        J(X,Y)=left(g_{alphabar{beta}},dz^alphawedge dbar{z}^betaright)(X,Y) = g_{alphabar{beta}}left( dz^alpha(X)dbar{z}^beta(Y) - dz^alpha(Y)dbar{z}^beta(X)right)
        end{align*}

        is clearly antisymmetric in $(X,Y)$. To see the indices of $J$ explicitly, compute:
        begin{align*}
        J_{ibar{j}} = J(partial_i,partial_{bar{j}})
        = g_{kbar{ell}}(delta_{ik}delta_{jell}-delta_{iell}delta_{jk}),
        end{align*}

        where $delta$ denotes the Kronecker delta. Now it's again explicit that $J_{ibar{j}}=-J_{jbar{i}}$.



        Just to note, your $J$ is usually called the Kahler form and denoted $omega$. People usually reserve $J$ for the (almost-) complex structure.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 28 at 3:05









        Quinton WestrichQuinton Westrich

        1445




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