Equivalence relation involving finiteness of symmetric difference of sets












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I'm posting this message so as to know if it would possible to get a hint so as to solve the following problem: A subset $A$ of $mathbb N$ is related to a subset $B$ of $mathbb N$ (A%B) if the symmetric difference of the two sets is a finite set.



I managed to prove the reflexive and symetric property of this relation but I'm stuck for proving the transitive proporty. As a matter of fact, I don't know how to deal with it when the sets are infinite. For example, I notice that if the set A = {2.k , $k in mathbb N$} - {2} is related to the set B = { 2.k | $k . in mathbb N$} $cup$ {3}. This would mean that the set $C$ has to be of the form C {2.k | $k in mathbb N$}. Nevertheless this is just an example, I don't know how to generalize it if it's transitive (it may seem that yes it's).



Thank you in advance for your feedback.










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  • $begingroup$
    Related : math.stackexchange.com/q/198657. Google query "finite symmetric difference" brings an amazing lot of answers, in particular in the domain of theoretical computer science.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    Feb 3 at 11:44
















0












$begingroup$


I'm posting this message so as to know if it would possible to get a hint so as to solve the following problem: A subset $A$ of $mathbb N$ is related to a subset $B$ of $mathbb N$ (A%B) if the symmetric difference of the two sets is a finite set.



I managed to prove the reflexive and symetric property of this relation but I'm stuck for proving the transitive proporty. As a matter of fact, I don't know how to deal with it when the sets are infinite. For example, I notice that if the set A = {2.k , $k in mathbb N$} - {2} is related to the set B = { 2.k | $k . in mathbb N$} $cup$ {3}. This would mean that the set $C$ has to be of the form C {2.k | $k in mathbb N$}. Nevertheless this is just an example, I don't know how to generalize it if it's transitive (it may seem that yes it's).



Thank you in advance for your feedback.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Related : math.stackexchange.com/q/198657. Google query "finite symmetric difference" brings an amazing lot of answers, in particular in the domain of theoretical computer science.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    Feb 3 at 11:44














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I'm posting this message so as to know if it would possible to get a hint so as to solve the following problem: A subset $A$ of $mathbb N$ is related to a subset $B$ of $mathbb N$ (A%B) if the symmetric difference of the two sets is a finite set.



I managed to prove the reflexive and symetric property of this relation but I'm stuck for proving the transitive proporty. As a matter of fact, I don't know how to deal with it when the sets are infinite. For example, I notice that if the set A = {2.k , $k in mathbb N$} - {2} is related to the set B = { 2.k | $k . in mathbb N$} $cup$ {3}. This would mean that the set $C$ has to be of the form C {2.k | $k in mathbb N$}. Nevertheless this is just an example, I don't know how to generalize it if it's transitive (it may seem that yes it's).



Thank you in advance for your feedback.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm posting this message so as to know if it would possible to get a hint so as to solve the following problem: A subset $A$ of $mathbb N$ is related to a subset $B$ of $mathbb N$ (A%B) if the symmetric difference of the two sets is a finite set.



I managed to prove the reflexive and symetric property of this relation but I'm stuck for proving the transitive proporty. As a matter of fact, I don't know how to deal with it when the sets are infinite. For example, I notice that if the set A = {2.k , $k in mathbb N$} - {2} is related to the set B = { 2.k | $k . in mathbb N$} $cup$ {3}. This would mean that the set $C$ has to be of the form C {2.k | $k in mathbb N$}. Nevertheless this is just an example, I don't know how to generalize it if it's transitive (it may seem that yes it's).



Thank you in advance for your feedback.







elementary-set-theory equivalence-relations






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edited Feb 3 at 11:32









Jean Marie

31.5k42355




31.5k42355










asked Feb 3 at 8:52









Hugo PeyronHugo Peyron

244




244












  • $begingroup$
    Related : math.stackexchange.com/q/198657. Google query "finite symmetric difference" brings an amazing lot of answers, in particular in the domain of theoretical computer science.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    Feb 3 at 11:44


















  • $begingroup$
    Related : math.stackexchange.com/q/198657. Google query "finite symmetric difference" brings an amazing lot of answers, in particular in the domain of theoretical computer science.
    $endgroup$
    – Jean Marie
    Feb 3 at 11:44
















$begingroup$
Related : math.stackexchange.com/q/198657. Google query "finite symmetric difference" brings an amazing lot of answers, in particular in the domain of theoretical computer science.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Feb 3 at 11:44




$begingroup$
Related : math.stackexchange.com/q/198657. Google query "finite symmetric difference" brings an amazing lot of answers, in particular in the domain of theoretical computer science.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Feb 3 at 11:44










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

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0












$begingroup$

The symmetric difference of A and B is finite,

iff A and B differ in a finite number of points.

Is this sufficient insight to prove transitivity?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    I'll denote the symmetric difference of $A$ and $B$ by $A Delta B$, as is customary.



    Then $$A Delta C subseteq (A Delta B) cup (B Delta C)$$



    Proof: let $x in A Delta C$. Case 1: $x in A$ and $x notin C$, then if $x in B$ then $x in B setminus C$ so $x in B Delta C$ and if $x notin B$, then $x in A setminus B$ so $x in A Delta B$. Case 2, where $x in C$ and $x notin A$ is similar, again two subcases depending on $x in B$ or not.



    If then $A sim B$ and $B sim C$, then the above inclusion shows that $A Delta C $ is a subset of a union of two finite sets, hence finite and so $A sim C$ too.



    In your example, $A Delta B = {2,3}$ and many sets $C$ are related to $B$, e.g. all sets of the form ${2n: n in mathbb{N}} cup F$, where $F$ is finite.
    $C$ need not be of the exact form you mention.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      0












      $begingroup$

      Here is a proof almost without words, using a Venn diagram, where symbol "F" means "finite". We use the fact that a subset of a finite set is itself a finite set.



      enter image description here






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Usually, people are reluctant to consider proofs using Venn (or Karnaugh diagrams) as true proofs. It's a pity because they are as valid as other proofs, accepting that a proof doesn't necessarily need to be verbalized. Your opinion ?
        $endgroup$
        – Jean Marie
        Feb 4 at 10:46














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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      0












      $begingroup$

      The symmetric difference of A and B is finite,

      iff A and B differ in a finite number of points.

      Is this sufficient insight to prove transitivity?






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        0












        $begingroup$

        The symmetric difference of A and B is finite,

        iff A and B differ in a finite number of points.

        Is this sufficient insight to prove transitivity?






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          The symmetric difference of A and B is finite,

          iff A and B differ in a finite number of points.

          Is this sufficient insight to prove transitivity?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The symmetric difference of A and B is finite,

          iff A and B differ in a finite number of points.

          Is this sufficient insight to prove transitivity?







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Feb 3 at 9:43









          William ElliotWilliam Elliot

          9,1962820




          9,1962820























              0












              $begingroup$

              I'll denote the symmetric difference of $A$ and $B$ by $A Delta B$, as is customary.



              Then $$A Delta C subseteq (A Delta B) cup (B Delta C)$$



              Proof: let $x in A Delta C$. Case 1: $x in A$ and $x notin C$, then if $x in B$ then $x in B setminus C$ so $x in B Delta C$ and if $x notin B$, then $x in A setminus B$ so $x in A Delta B$. Case 2, where $x in C$ and $x notin A$ is similar, again two subcases depending on $x in B$ or not.



              If then $A sim B$ and $B sim C$, then the above inclusion shows that $A Delta C $ is a subset of a union of two finite sets, hence finite and so $A sim C$ too.



              In your example, $A Delta B = {2,3}$ and many sets $C$ are related to $B$, e.g. all sets of the form ${2n: n in mathbb{N}} cup F$, where $F$ is finite.
              $C$ need not be of the exact form you mention.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                I'll denote the symmetric difference of $A$ and $B$ by $A Delta B$, as is customary.



                Then $$A Delta C subseteq (A Delta B) cup (B Delta C)$$



                Proof: let $x in A Delta C$. Case 1: $x in A$ and $x notin C$, then if $x in B$ then $x in B setminus C$ so $x in B Delta C$ and if $x notin B$, then $x in A setminus B$ so $x in A Delta B$. Case 2, where $x in C$ and $x notin A$ is similar, again two subcases depending on $x in B$ or not.



                If then $A sim B$ and $B sim C$, then the above inclusion shows that $A Delta C $ is a subset of a union of two finite sets, hence finite and so $A sim C$ too.



                In your example, $A Delta B = {2,3}$ and many sets $C$ are related to $B$, e.g. all sets of the form ${2n: n in mathbb{N}} cup F$, where $F$ is finite.
                $C$ need not be of the exact form you mention.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  I'll denote the symmetric difference of $A$ and $B$ by $A Delta B$, as is customary.



                  Then $$A Delta C subseteq (A Delta B) cup (B Delta C)$$



                  Proof: let $x in A Delta C$. Case 1: $x in A$ and $x notin C$, then if $x in B$ then $x in B setminus C$ so $x in B Delta C$ and if $x notin B$, then $x in A setminus B$ so $x in A Delta B$. Case 2, where $x in C$ and $x notin A$ is similar, again two subcases depending on $x in B$ or not.



                  If then $A sim B$ and $B sim C$, then the above inclusion shows that $A Delta C $ is a subset of a union of two finite sets, hence finite and so $A sim C$ too.



                  In your example, $A Delta B = {2,3}$ and many sets $C$ are related to $B$, e.g. all sets of the form ${2n: n in mathbb{N}} cup F$, where $F$ is finite.
                  $C$ need not be of the exact form you mention.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  I'll denote the symmetric difference of $A$ and $B$ by $A Delta B$, as is customary.



                  Then $$A Delta C subseteq (A Delta B) cup (B Delta C)$$



                  Proof: let $x in A Delta C$. Case 1: $x in A$ and $x notin C$, then if $x in B$ then $x in B setminus C$ so $x in B Delta C$ and if $x notin B$, then $x in A setminus B$ so $x in A Delta B$. Case 2, where $x in C$ and $x notin A$ is similar, again two subcases depending on $x in B$ or not.



                  If then $A sim B$ and $B sim C$, then the above inclusion shows that $A Delta C $ is a subset of a union of two finite sets, hence finite and so $A sim C$ too.



                  In your example, $A Delta B = {2,3}$ and many sets $C$ are related to $B$, e.g. all sets of the form ${2n: n in mathbb{N}} cup F$, where $F$ is finite.
                  $C$ need not be of the exact form you mention.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Feb 3 at 18:01









                  Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

                  116k349127




                  116k349127























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      Here is a proof almost without words, using a Venn diagram, where symbol "F" means "finite". We use the fact that a subset of a finite set is itself a finite set.



                      enter image description here






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        Usually, people are reluctant to consider proofs using Venn (or Karnaugh diagrams) as true proofs. It's a pity because they are as valid as other proofs, accepting that a proof doesn't necessarily need to be verbalized. Your opinion ?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Jean Marie
                        Feb 4 at 10:46


















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      Here is a proof almost without words, using a Venn diagram, where symbol "F" means "finite". We use the fact that a subset of a finite set is itself a finite set.



                      enter image description here






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        Usually, people are reluctant to consider proofs using Venn (or Karnaugh diagrams) as true proofs. It's a pity because they are as valid as other proofs, accepting that a proof doesn't necessarily need to be verbalized. Your opinion ?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Jean Marie
                        Feb 4 at 10:46
















                      0












                      0








                      0





                      $begingroup$

                      Here is a proof almost without words, using a Venn diagram, where symbol "F" means "finite". We use the fact that a subset of a finite set is itself a finite set.



                      enter image description here






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      Here is a proof almost without words, using a Venn diagram, where symbol "F" means "finite". We use the fact that a subset of a finite set is itself a finite set.



                      enter image description here







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Feb 3 at 18:14









                      Jean MarieJean Marie

                      31.5k42355




                      31.5k42355












                      • $begingroup$
                        Usually, people are reluctant to consider proofs using Venn (or Karnaugh diagrams) as true proofs. It's a pity because they are as valid as other proofs, accepting that a proof doesn't necessarily need to be verbalized. Your opinion ?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Jean Marie
                        Feb 4 at 10:46




















                      • $begingroup$
                        Usually, people are reluctant to consider proofs using Venn (or Karnaugh diagrams) as true proofs. It's a pity because they are as valid as other proofs, accepting that a proof doesn't necessarily need to be verbalized. Your opinion ?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Jean Marie
                        Feb 4 at 10:46


















                      $begingroup$
                      Usually, people are reluctant to consider proofs using Venn (or Karnaugh diagrams) as true proofs. It's a pity because they are as valid as other proofs, accepting that a proof doesn't necessarily need to be verbalized. Your opinion ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Jean Marie
                      Feb 4 at 10:46






                      $begingroup$
                      Usually, people are reluctant to consider proofs using Venn (or Karnaugh diagrams) as true proofs. It's a pity because they are as valid as other proofs, accepting that a proof doesn't necessarily need to be verbalized. Your opinion ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Jean Marie
                      Feb 4 at 10:46




















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