Fulton example section $2.4$, help needed in clarification












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$begingroup$


This is an example in Fulton, Algebraic Curves.



Let $V= V(xw-yz) subset mathbb{A^{4}(k)}$, and $Gamma(V)$, the co-ordinate ring of $V$ is $k[x,y,z,w]/ (xw-yz)$.



and, $bar{x}, bar{y}, bar{z}, bar{w}$ denote residues of $x,y,z,w$ in $Gamma(V)$.



Then $frac{bar{x}}{bar{y}}= frac{bar{z}}{bar{w}} =f in k(V)$, (the field of rational functions on $V$) is defined at $P=(x,y,z,w) in V$ if $y,w, neq 0$



My question- I think points $P$ where f is defined should be where $bar{z}, bar{y} neq bar{0}$, the points $(x,y,z,w)$ where $y,z$ are not in $I(V)= (xw-yz)$. How come the book says otherwise? I'm confused, can someone help?



Thanks.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    This is an example in Fulton, Algebraic Curves.



    Let $V= V(xw-yz) subset mathbb{A^{4}(k)}$, and $Gamma(V)$, the co-ordinate ring of $V$ is $k[x,y,z,w]/ (xw-yz)$.



    and, $bar{x}, bar{y}, bar{z}, bar{w}$ denote residues of $x,y,z,w$ in $Gamma(V)$.



    Then $frac{bar{x}}{bar{y}}= frac{bar{z}}{bar{w}} =f in k(V)$, (the field of rational functions on $V$) is defined at $P=(x,y,z,w) in V$ if $y,w, neq 0$



    My question- I think points $P$ where f is defined should be where $bar{z}, bar{y} neq bar{0}$, the points $(x,y,z,w)$ where $y,z$ are not in $I(V)= (xw-yz)$. How come the book says otherwise? I'm confused, can someone help?



    Thanks.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      This is an example in Fulton, Algebraic Curves.



      Let $V= V(xw-yz) subset mathbb{A^{4}(k)}$, and $Gamma(V)$, the co-ordinate ring of $V$ is $k[x,y,z,w]/ (xw-yz)$.



      and, $bar{x}, bar{y}, bar{z}, bar{w}$ denote residues of $x,y,z,w$ in $Gamma(V)$.



      Then $frac{bar{x}}{bar{y}}= frac{bar{z}}{bar{w}} =f in k(V)$, (the field of rational functions on $V$) is defined at $P=(x,y,z,w) in V$ if $y,w, neq 0$



      My question- I think points $P$ where f is defined should be where $bar{z}, bar{y} neq bar{0}$, the points $(x,y,z,w)$ where $y,z$ are not in $I(V)= (xw-yz)$. How come the book says otherwise? I'm confused, can someone help?



      Thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      This is an example in Fulton, Algebraic Curves.



      Let $V= V(xw-yz) subset mathbb{A^{4}(k)}$, and $Gamma(V)$, the co-ordinate ring of $V$ is $k[x,y,z,w]/ (xw-yz)$.



      and, $bar{x}, bar{y}, bar{z}, bar{w}$ denote residues of $x,y,z,w$ in $Gamma(V)$.



      Then $frac{bar{x}}{bar{y}}= frac{bar{z}}{bar{w}} =f in k(V)$, (the field of rational functions on $V$) is defined at $P=(x,y,z,w) in V$ if $y,w, neq 0$



      My question- I think points $P$ where f is defined should be where $bar{z}, bar{y} neq bar{0}$, the points $(x,y,z,w)$ where $y,z$ are not in $I(V)= (xw-yz)$. How come the book says otherwise? I'm confused, can someone help?



      Thanks.







      algebraic-geometry algebraic-curves






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      asked Feb 3 at 9:47









      MojojojoMojojojo

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      1,46721131






















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