Find an example which shows that the following inequality is sharp












3












$begingroup$


Let $E$ be a complex Hilbert space.



In (arXiv) it was shown that for $A=(A_1,...,A_n) in mathcal{B}(E)^n$ we have,



$$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}|A|leq omega(A) leq |A|,$$
where
$$
omega(A) = sup_{|x|=1} left(sum_{k=1}^n |langle A_kx,xrangle|^2right)^{1/2},
$$

and
$$|A|= left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$




How can we prove that $frac{1}{2sqrt{n}}$ is optimal?











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    Let $E$ be a complex Hilbert space.



    In (arXiv) it was shown that for $A=(A_1,...,A_n) in mathcal{B}(E)^n$ we have,



    $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}|A|leq omega(A) leq |A|,$$
    where
    $$
    omega(A) = sup_{|x|=1} left(sum_{k=1}^n |langle A_kx,xrangle|^2right)^{1/2},
    $$

    and
    $$|A|= left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$




    How can we prove that $frac{1}{2sqrt{n}}$ is optimal?











    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Let $E$ be a complex Hilbert space.



      In (arXiv) it was shown that for $A=(A_1,...,A_n) in mathcal{B}(E)^n$ we have,



      $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}|A|leq omega(A) leq |A|,$$
      where
      $$
      omega(A) = sup_{|x|=1} left(sum_{k=1}^n |langle A_kx,xrangle|^2right)^{1/2},
      $$

      and
      $$|A|= left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$




      How can we prove that $frac{1}{2sqrt{n}}$ is optimal?











      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $E$ be a complex Hilbert space.



      In (arXiv) it was shown that for $A=(A_1,...,A_n) in mathcal{B}(E)^n$ we have,



      $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}|A|leq omega(A) leq |A|,$$
      where
      $$
      omega(A) = sup_{|x|=1} left(sum_{k=1}^n |langle A_kx,xrangle|^2right)^{1/2},
      $$

      and
      $$|A|= left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$




      How can we prove that $frac{1}{2sqrt{n}}$ is optimal?








      linear-algebra functional-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 13 at 9:15







      Student

















      asked Dec 27 '18 at 13:11









      StudentStudent

      2,4242524




      2,4242524






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          The estimate $omega_e(A) leq Vert A Vert$ is sharp, as we can take $A=(Id, dots, Id)$ and for this choice we get equality.



          We now prove optimality under the additional assumption $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$. In case someone has some insight for lower dimension please let me know.



          If we assume $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$, then it suffices to consider the case $E=mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ with the standard scalar product (otherwise choose a subspace of dimension $n+1$ and identify it with $mathbb{C}^{n+1}$). We choose $A_k: mathbb{C}^{n+1} rightarrow mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ such that
          $$ A_k (x_1, dots, x_{n+1})= (0, dots,0 , x_1, 0, dots, 0) $$
          where $x_1$ is in the kth slot. The corresponding matrix consists of all zeros and a one in the kth row of the first column, e.g. for $n=3, k=2$
          $$ A_2 = begin{pmatrix}
          0 & 0 & 0 \
          1 & 0 & 0 \
          0 & 0 & 0
          end{pmatrix}.$$

          Now we set
          $$ A=(A_2, dots, A_{n+1} )$$
          We have
          $$ Vert A_k x Vert^2 = langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0),(0, dots, x_1, dots, 0)rangle = vert x_1 vert^2 $$
          Thus, we get
          $$ Vert A Vert = sup_{Vert x Vert = 1} sqrt{n} vert x_1 vert = sqrt{n} $$
          On the other hand we have
          $$ vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2 = vert langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0), (x_1, dots, x_{n+1}) rangle vert^2 = vert x_1 vert^2 cdot vert x_k vert^2 $$
          And hence, for $Vert x Vert=1$
          $$ left(sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2right)^frac{1}{2}
          = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert x_k vert^2 right)^frac{1}{2}
          = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot (1- vert x_1 vert^2)right)^frac{1}{2}
          = vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}$$

          Hence, we get
          $$ omega_e(A) = sup_{Vert x Vert=1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
          = sup_{vert x_1 vertleq 1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
          = frac{1}{2} $$

          Thus, we finally get
          $$ frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} Vert A Vert = frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} cdot sqrt{n} = frac{1}{2} = omega_e(A) $$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            As stated, the example cannot be right. The three expressions in the inequality spit coefficients, so if $T/sqrt n$ works, so does $T$.



            Also the left inequalities is not sharp. For instance, if $E=mathbb C$, then
            $$
            omega(A_1,ldots,A_n)=left|sum_{j=1}^n A_j^*A_jright|^{1/2}.
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thank you Professor for your answer. However, please I don't understand why the left inequality cannot be sharp? The example taken in the paper is not correct. However, why we cannot find another example? By the way I think that the inequality $$omega(A_1,cdots,A_n) leq left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}$$ is sharp. Indeed, if one takes $A_k=S=begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&0end{pmatrix}$ for all $k$, we obtain equality in last inequality.
              $endgroup$
              – Student
              Dec 28 '18 at 5:17










            • $begingroup$
              It's not about having equality in one case, but in all of them. The example I'm giving you is that when $dim E=1$, your left inequality is always strict.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin Argerami
              Dec 28 '18 at 5:29










            • $begingroup$
              If I understand you, you mean by not ''sharp'' that is, it is impossible to find a same example $(A_1,cdots,A_n)$ such that $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}= omega(A_1,cdots,A_n)=left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$ Please correct me if I made wrong. Thank you.
              $endgroup$
              – Student
              Dec 28 '18 at 15:38












            • $begingroup$
              That's what I said. And the the case where $dim E=1$ gives an example where that inequality is never sharp. But I don't know what happens when $dim Egeq2$.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin Argerami
              Dec 28 '18 at 15:59










            • $begingroup$
              I'm puzzled. I don't see anything wrong with your computation.
              $endgroup$
              – Martin Argerami
              Dec 28 '18 at 16:08











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            2 Answers
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            3












            $begingroup$

            The estimate $omega_e(A) leq Vert A Vert$ is sharp, as we can take $A=(Id, dots, Id)$ and for this choice we get equality.



            We now prove optimality under the additional assumption $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$. In case someone has some insight for lower dimension please let me know.



            If we assume $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$, then it suffices to consider the case $E=mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ with the standard scalar product (otherwise choose a subspace of dimension $n+1$ and identify it with $mathbb{C}^{n+1}$). We choose $A_k: mathbb{C}^{n+1} rightarrow mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ such that
            $$ A_k (x_1, dots, x_{n+1})= (0, dots,0 , x_1, 0, dots, 0) $$
            where $x_1$ is in the kth slot. The corresponding matrix consists of all zeros and a one in the kth row of the first column, e.g. for $n=3, k=2$
            $$ A_2 = begin{pmatrix}
            0 & 0 & 0 \
            1 & 0 & 0 \
            0 & 0 & 0
            end{pmatrix}.$$

            Now we set
            $$ A=(A_2, dots, A_{n+1} )$$
            We have
            $$ Vert A_k x Vert^2 = langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0),(0, dots, x_1, dots, 0)rangle = vert x_1 vert^2 $$
            Thus, we get
            $$ Vert A Vert = sup_{Vert x Vert = 1} sqrt{n} vert x_1 vert = sqrt{n} $$
            On the other hand we have
            $$ vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2 = vert langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0), (x_1, dots, x_{n+1}) rangle vert^2 = vert x_1 vert^2 cdot vert x_k vert^2 $$
            And hence, for $Vert x Vert=1$
            $$ left(sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2right)^frac{1}{2}
            = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert x_k vert^2 right)^frac{1}{2}
            = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot (1- vert x_1 vert^2)right)^frac{1}{2}
            = vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}$$

            Hence, we get
            $$ omega_e(A) = sup_{Vert x Vert=1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
            = sup_{vert x_1 vertleq 1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
            = frac{1}{2} $$

            Thus, we finally get
            $$ frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} Vert A Vert = frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} cdot sqrt{n} = frac{1}{2} = omega_e(A) $$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              The estimate $omega_e(A) leq Vert A Vert$ is sharp, as we can take $A=(Id, dots, Id)$ and for this choice we get equality.



              We now prove optimality under the additional assumption $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$. In case someone has some insight for lower dimension please let me know.



              If we assume $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$, then it suffices to consider the case $E=mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ with the standard scalar product (otherwise choose a subspace of dimension $n+1$ and identify it with $mathbb{C}^{n+1}$). We choose $A_k: mathbb{C}^{n+1} rightarrow mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ such that
              $$ A_k (x_1, dots, x_{n+1})= (0, dots,0 , x_1, 0, dots, 0) $$
              where $x_1$ is in the kth slot. The corresponding matrix consists of all zeros and a one in the kth row of the first column, e.g. for $n=3, k=2$
              $$ A_2 = begin{pmatrix}
              0 & 0 & 0 \
              1 & 0 & 0 \
              0 & 0 & 0
              end{pmatrix}.$$

              Now we set
              $$ A=(A_2, dots, A_{n+1} )$$
              We have
              $$ Vert A_k x Vert^2 = langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0),(0, dots, x_1, dots, 0)rangle = vert x_1 vert^2 $$
              Thus, we get
              $$ Vert A Vert = sup_{Vert x Vert = 1} sqrt{n} vert x_1 vert = sqrt{n} $$
              On the other hand we have
              $$ vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2 = vert langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0), (x_1, dots, x_{n+1}) rangle vert^2 = vert x_1 vert^2 cdot vert x_k vert^2 $$
              And hence, for $Vert x Vert=1$
              $$ left(sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2right)^frac{1}{2}
              = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert x_k vert^2 right)^frac{1}{2}
              = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot (1- vert x_1 vert^2)right)^frac{1}{2}
              = vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}$$

              Hence, we get
              $$ omega_e(A) = sup_{Vert x Vert=1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
              = sup_{vert x_1 vertleq 1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
              = frac{1}{2} $$

              Thus, we finally get
              $$ frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} Vert A Vert = frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} cdot sqrt{n} = frac{1}{2} = omega_e(A) $$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                The estimate $omega_e(A) leq Vert A Vert$ is sharp, as we can take $A=(Id, dots, Id)$ and for this choice we get equality.



                We now prove optimality under the additional assumption $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$. In case someone has some insight for lower dimension please let me know.



                If we assume $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$, then it suffices to consider the case $E=mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ with the standard scalar product (otherwise choose a subspace of dimension $n+1$ and identify it with $mathbb{C}^{n+1}$). We choose $A_k: mathbb{C}^{n+1} rightarrow mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ such that
                $$ A_k (x_1, dots, x_{n+1})= (0, dots,0 , x_1, 0, dots, 0) $$
                where $x_1$ is in the kth slot. The corresponding matrix consists of all zeros and a one in the kth row of the first column, e.g. for $n=3, k=2$
                $$ A_2 = begin{pmatrix}
                0 & 0 & 0 \
                1 & 0 & 0 \
                0 & 0 & 0
                end{pmatrix}.$$

                Now we set
                $$ A=(A_2, dots, A_{n+1} )$$
                We have
                $$ Vert A_k x Vert^2 = langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0),(0, dots, x_1, dots, 0)rangle = vert x_1 vert^2 $$
                Thus, we get
                $$ Vert A Vert = sup_{Vert x Vert = 1} sqrt{n} vert x_1 vert = sqrt{n} $$
                On the other hand we have
                $$ vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2 = vert langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0), (x_1, dots, x_{n+1}) rangle vert^2 = vert x_1 vert^2 cdot vert x_k vert^2 $$
                And hence, for $Vert x Vert=1$
                $$ left(sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2right)^frac{1}{2}
                = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert x_k vert^2 right)^frac{1}{2}
                = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot (1- vert x_1 vert^2)right)^frac{1}{2}
                = vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}$$

                Hence, we get
                $$ omega_e(A) = sup_{Vert x Vert=1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
                = sup_{vert x_1 vertleq 1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
                = frac{1}{2} $$

                Thus, we finally get
                $$ frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} Vert A Vert = frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} cdot sqrt{n} = frac{1}{2} = omega_e(A) $$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                The estimate $omega_e(A) leq Vert A Vert$ is sharp, as we can take $A=(Id, dots, Id)$ and for this choice we get equality.



                We now prove optimality under the additional assumption $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$. In case someone has some insight for lower dimension please let me know.



                If we assume $dim_mathbb{C}(E)geq n+1$, then it suffices to consider the case $E=mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ with the standard scalar product (otherwise choose a subspace of dimension $n+1$ and identify it with $mathbb{C}^{n+1}$). We choose $A_k: mathbb{C}^{n+1} rightarrow mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ such that
                $$ A_k (x_1, dots, x_{n+1})= (0, dots,0 , x_1, 0, dots, 0) $$
                where $x_1$ is in the kth slot. The corresponding matrix consists of all zeros and a one in the kth row of the first column, e.g. for $n=3, k=2$
                $$ A_2 = begin{pmatrix}
                0 & 0 & 0 \
                1 & 0 & 0 \
                0 & 0 & 0
                end{pmatrix}.$$

                Now we set
                $$ A=(A_2, dots, A_{n+1} )$$
                We have
                $$ Vert A_k x Vert^2 = langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0),(0, dots, x_1, dots, 0)rangle = vert x_1 vert^2 $$
                Thus, we get
                $$ Vert A Vert = sup_{Vert x Vert = 1} sqrt{n} vert x_1 vert = sqrt{n} $$
                On the other hand we have
                $$ vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2 = vert langle (0, dots, x_1, dots, 0), (x_1, dots, x_{n+1}) rangle vert^2 = vert x_1 vert^2 cdot vert x_k vert^2 $$
                And hence, for $Vert x Vert=1$
                $$ left(sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert langle A_k x, x rangle vert^2right)^frac{1}{2}
                = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot sum_{k=2}^{n+1} vert x_k vert^2 right)^frac{1}{2}
                = left(vert x_1 vert^2 cdot (1- vert x_1 vert^2)right)^frac{1}{2}
                = vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}$$

                Hence, we get
                $$ omega_e(A) = sup_{Vert x Vert=1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
                = sup_{vert x_1 vertleq 1} vert x_1 vert cdot sqrt{1- vert x_1 vert^2}
                = frac{1}{2} $$

                Thus, we finally get
                $$ frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} Vert A Vert = frac{1}{2sqrt{n}} cdot sqrt{n} = frac{1}{2} = omega_e(A) $$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Jan 13 at 10:53









                Martin Sleziak

                44.7k9117272




                44.7k9117272










                answered Jan 12 at 13:57









                Severin SchravenSeverin Schraven

                6,1281934




                6,1281934























                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    As stated, the example cannot be right. The three expressions in the inequality spit coefficients, so if $T/sqrt n$ works, so does $T$.



                    Also the left inequalities is not sharp. For instance, if $E=mathbb C$, then
                    $$
                    omega(A_1,ldots,A_n)=left|sum_{j=1}^n A_j^*A_jright|^{1/2}.
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Thank you Professor for your answer. However, please I don't understand why the left inequality cannot be sharp? The example taken in the paper is not correct. However, why we cannot find another example? By the way I think that the inequality $$omega(A_1,cdots,A_n) leq left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}$$ is sharp. Indeed, if one takes $A_k=S=begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&0end{pmatrix}$ for all $k$, we obtain equality in last inequality.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Student
                      Dec 28 '18 at 5:17










                    • $begingroup$
                      It's not about having equality in one case, but in all of them. The example I'm giving you is that when $dim E=1$, your left inequality is always strict.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 5:29










                    • $begingroup$
                      If I understand you, you mean by not ''sharp'' that is, it is impossible to find a same example $(A_1,cdots,A_n)$ such that $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}= omega(A_1,cdots,A_n)=left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$ Please correct me if I made wrong. Thank you.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Student
                      Dec 28 '18 at 15:38












                    • $begingroup$
                      That's what I said. And the the case where $dim E=1$ gives an example where that inequality is never sharp. But I don't know what happens when $dim Egeq2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 15:59










                    • $begingroup$
                      I'm puzzled. I don't see anything wrong with your computation.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 16:08
















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    As stated, the example cannot be right. The three expressions in the inequality spit coefficients, so if $T/sqrt n$ works, so does $T$.



                    Also the left inequalities is not sharp. For instance, if $E=mathbb C$, then
                    $$
                    omega(A_1,ldots,A_n)=left|sum_{j=1}^n A_j^*A_jright|^{1/2}.
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Thank you Professor for your answer. However, please I don't understand why the left inequality cannot be sharp? The example taken in the paper is not correct. However, why we cannot find another example? By the way I think that the inequality $$omega(A_1,cdots,A_n) leq left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}$$ is sharp. Indeed, if one takes $A_k=S=begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&0end{pmatrix}$ for all $k$, we obtain equality in last inequality.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Student
                      Dec 28 '18 at 5:17










                    • $begingroup$
                      It's not about having equality in one case, but in all of them. The example I'm giving you is that when $dim E=1$, your left inequality is always strict.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 5:29










                    • $begingroup$
                      If I understand you, you mean by not ''sharp'' that is, it is impossible to find a same example $(A_1,cdots,A_n)$ such that $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}= omega(A_1,cdots,A_n)=left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$ Please correct me if I made wrong. Thank you.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Student
                      Dec 28 '18 at 15:38












                    • $begingroup$
                      That's what I said. And the the case where $dim E=1$ gives an example where that inequality is never sharp. But I don't know what happens when $dim Egeq2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 15:59










                    • $begingroup$
                      I'm puzzled. I don't see anything wrong with your computation.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 16:08














                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    As stated, the example cannot be right. The three expressions in the inequality spit coefficients, so if $T/sqrt n$ works, so does $T$.



                    Also the left inequalities is not sharp. For instance, if $E=mathbb C$, then
                    $$
                    omega(A_1,ldots,A_n)=left|sum_{j=1}^n A_j^*A_jright|^{1/2}.
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    As stated, the example cannot be right. The three expressions in the inequality spit coefficients, so if $T/sqrt n$ works, so does $T$.



                    Also the left inequalities is not sharp. For instance, if $E=mathbb C$, then
                    $$
                    omega(A_1,ldots,A_n)=left|sum_{j=1}^n A_j^*A_jright|^{1/2}.
                    $$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 28 '18 at 3:43









                    Martin ArgeramiMartin Argerami

                    126k1182180




                    126k1182180












                    • $begingroup$
                      Thank you Professor for your answer. However, please I don't understand why the left inequality cannot be sharp? The example taken in the paper is not correct. However, why we cannot find another example? By the way I think that the inequality $$omega(A_1,cdots,A_n) leq left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}$$ is sharp. Indeed, if one takes $A_k=S=begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&0end{pmatrix}$ for all $k$, we obtain equality in last inequality.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Student
                      Dec 28 '18 at 5:17










                    • $begingroup$
                      It's not about having equality in one case, but in all of them. The example I'm giving you is that when $dim E=1$, your left inequality is always strict.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 5:29










                    • $begingroup$
                      If I understand you, you mean by not ''sharp'' that is, it is impossible to find a same example $(A_1,cdots,A_n)$ such that $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}= omega(A_1,cdots,A_n)=left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$ Please correct me if I made wrong. Thank you.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Student
                      Dec 28 '18 at 15:38












                    • $begingroup$
                      That's what I said. And the the case where $dim E=1$ gives an example where that inequality is never sharp. But I don't know what happens when $dim Egeq2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 15:59










                    • $begingroup$
                      I'm puzzled. I don't see anything wrong with your computation.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 16:08


















                    • $begingroup$
                      Thank you Professor for your answer. However, please I don't understand why the left inequality cannot be sharp? The example taken in the paper is not correct. However, why we cannot find another example? By the way I think that the inequality $$omega(A_1,cdots,A_n) leq left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}$$ is sharp. Indeed, if one takes $A_k=S=begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&0end{pmatrix}$ for all $k$, we obtain equality in last inequality.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Student
                      Dec 28 '18 at 5:17










                    • $begingroup$
                      It's not about having equality in one case, but in all of them. The example I'm giving you is that when $dim E=1$, your left inequality is always strict.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 5:29










                    • $begingroup$
                      If I understand you, you mean by not ''sharp'' that is, it is impossible to find a same example $(A_1,cdots,A_n)$ such that $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}= omega(A_1,cdots,A_n)=left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$ Please correct me if I made wrong. Thank you.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Student
                      Dec 28 '18 at 15:38












                    • $begingroup$
                      That's what I said. And the the case where $dim E=1$ gives an example where that inequality is never sharp. But I don't know what happens when $dim Egeq2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 15:59










                    • $begingroup$
                      I'm puzzled. I don't see anything wrong with your computation.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Martin Argerami
                      Dec 28 '18 at 16:08
















                    $begingroup$
                    Thank you Professor for your answer. However, please I don't understand why the left inequality cannot be sharp? The example taken in the paper is not correct. However, why we cannot find another example? By the way I think that the inequality $$omega(A_1,cdots,A_n) leq left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}$$ is sharp. Indeed, if one takes $A_k=S=begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&0end{pmatrix}$ for all $k$, we obtain equality in last inequality.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Student
                    Dec 28 '18 at 5:17




                    $begingroup$
                    Thank you Professor for your answer. However, please I don't understand why the left inequality cannot be sharp? The example taken in the paper is not correct. However, why we cannot find another example? By the way I think that the inequality $$omega(A_1,cdots,A_n) leq left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}$$ is sharp. Indeed, if one takes $A_k=S=begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&0end{pmatrix}$ for all $k$, we obtain equality in last inequality.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Student
                    Dec 28 '18 at 5:17












                    $begingroup$
                    It's not about having equality in one case, but in all of them. The example I'm giving you is that when $dim E=1$, your left inequality is always strict.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Martin Argerami
                    Dec 28 '18 at 5:29




                    $begingroup$
                    It's not about having equality in one case, but in all of them. The example I'm giving you is that when $dim E=1$, your left inequality is always strict.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Martin Argerami
                    Dec 28 '18 at 5:29












                    $begingroup$
                    If I understand you, you mean by not ''sharp'' that is, it is impossible to find a same example $(A_1,cdots,A_n)$ such that $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}= omega(A_1,cdots,A_n)=left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$ Please correct me if I made wrong. Thank you.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Student
                    Dec 28 '18 at 15:38






                    $begingroup$
                    If I understand you, you mean by not ''sharp'' that is, it is impossible to find a same example $(A_1,cdots,A_n)$ such that $$displaystylefrac{1}{2sqrt{n}}left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}= omega(A_1,cdots,A_n)=left|displaystylesum_{k=1}^nA_k^*A_k right|^{1/2}.$$ Please correct me if I made wrong. Thank you.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Student
                    Dec 28 '18 at 15:38














                    $begingroup$
                    That's what I said. And the the case where $dim E=1$ gives an example where that inequality is never sharp. But I don't know what happens when $dim Egeq2$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Martin Argerami
                    Dec 28 '18 at 15:59




                    $begingroup$
                    That's what I said. And the the case where $dim E=1$ gives an example where that inequality is never sharp. But I don't know what happens when $dim Egeq2$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Martin Argerami
                    Dec 28 '18 at 15:59












                    $begingroup$
                    I'm puzzled. I don't see anything wrong with your computation.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Martin Argerami
                    Dec 28 '18 at 16:08




                    $begingroup$
                    I'm puzzled. I don't see anything wrong with your computation.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Martin Argerami
                    Dec 28 '18 at 16:08


















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