Existence of a subspace of the domain of a linear map with specific properties
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Let $V$, $W$ be two finite-dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{K}$ and $T in L(V,W)$.
Does a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the following properties exist:
$$U cap mathrm{Ker}(T) = {0}$$ and $$ mathrm{Im}(T) = { T(u);|;uin U }$$
My solution:
Let $B_0 = { v_1, dots, v_m } $ be a basis of $mathrm{Ker}(T)$.
Because every basis of a subspace can be expanded to a basis of its vector space, $B_0$ can be expanded to a basis $B$ of $V$:
$$ B = {v_1, dots, v_m, v_{m+1}, dots, v_{n}} $$
Then let $ U = mathrm{span}{v_{m+1}, dots, v_n }$ be the span of the extended vectors.
U now fulfills the first property because the intersection of the span of two linearly independent sets only contains the zero vector.
For the second property I don't know how to get to the property, so far I have:
I now know that $ V = U oplus mathrm{Ker}(T)$ and from
$$ mathrm{dim};V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim};U$$ and
$$mathrm{dim}; V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$$
that $mathrm{dim};U = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$.
And I also know that $T$ restricted to $U$ is injective.
Do these observation help me solve the problem or could someone provide a hint? Thank you
linear-algebra abstract-algebra vector-spaces linear-transformations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $V$, $W$ be two finite-dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{K}$ and $T in L(V,W)$.
Does a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the following properties exist:
$$U cap mathrm{Ker}(T) = {0}$$ and $$ mathrm{Im}(T) = { T(u);|;uin U }$$
My solution:
Let $B_0 = { v_1, dots, v_m } $ be a basis of $mathrm{Ker}(T)$.
Because every basis of a subspace can be expanded to a basis of its vector space, $B_0$ can be expanded to a basis $B$ of $V$:
$$ B = {v_1, dots, v_m, v_{m+1}, dots, v_{n}} $$
Then let $ U = mathrm{span}{v_{m+1}, dots, v_n }$ be the span of the extended vectors.
U now fulfills the first property because the intersection of the span of two linearly independent sets only contains the zero vector.
For the second property I don't know how to get to the property, so far I have:
I now know that $ V = U oplus mathrm{Ker}(T)$ and from
$$ mathrm{dim};V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim};U$$ and
$$mathrm{dim}; V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$$
that $mathrm{dim};U = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$.
And I also know that $T$ restricted to $U$ is injective.
Do these observation help me solve the problem or could someone provide a hint? Thank you
linear-algebra abstract-algebra vector-spaces linear-transformations
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
$endgroup$
– C. Zhihao
Jan 17 at 17:41
$begingroup$
Thank you for your help!
$endgroup$
– strelsol
Jan 17 at 17:59
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $V$, $W$ be two finite-dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{K}$ and $T in L(V,W)$.
Does a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the following properties exist:
$$U cap mathrm{Ker}(T) = {0}$$ and $$ mathrm{Im}(T) = { T(u);|;uin U }$$
My solution:
Let $B_0 = { v_1, dots, v_m } $ be a basis of $mathrm{Ker}(T)$.
Because every basis of a subspace can be expanded to a basis of its vector space, $B_0$ can be expanded to a basis $B$ of $V$:
$$ B = {v_1, dots, v_m, v_{m+1}, dots, v_{n}} $$
Then let $ U = mathrm{span}{v_{m+1}, dots, v_n }$ be the span of the extended vectors.
U now fulfills the first property because the intersection of the span of two linearly independent sets only contains the zero vector.
For the second property I don't know how to get to the property, so far I have:
I now know that $ V = U oplus mathrm{Ker}(T)$ and from
$$ mathrm{dim};V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim};U$$ and
$$mathrm{dim}; V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$$
that $mathrm{dim};U = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$.
And I also know that $T$ restricted to $U$ is injective.
Do these observation help me solve the problem or could someone provide a hint? Thank you
linear-algebra abstract-algebra vector-spaces linear-transformations
$endgroup$
Let $V$, $W$ be two finite-dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{K}$ and $T in L(V,W)$.
Does a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the following properties exist:
$$U cap mathrm{Ker}(T) = {0}$$ and $$ mathrm{Im}(T) = { T(u);|;uin U }$$
My solution:
Let $B_0 = { v_1, dots, v_m } $ be a basis of $mathrm{Ker}(T)$.
Because every basis of a subspace can be expanded to a basis of its vector space, $B_0$ can be expanded to a basis $B$ of $V$:
$$ B = {v_1, dots, v_m, v_{m+1}, dots, v_{n}} $$
Then let $ U = mathrm{span}{v_{m+1}, dots, v_n }$ be the span of the extended vectors.
U now fulfills the first property because the intersection of the span of two linearly independent sets only contains the zero vector.
For the second property I don't know how to get to the property, so far I have:
I now know that $ V = U oplus mathrm{Ker}(T)$ and from
$$ mathrm{dim};V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim};U$$ and
$$mathrm{dim}; V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$$
that $mathrm{dim};U = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$.
And I also know that $T$ restricted to $U$ is injective.
Do these observation help me solve the problem or could someone provide a hint? Thank you
linear-algebra abstract-algebra vector-spaces linear-transformations
linear-algebra abstract-algebra vector-spaces linear-transformations
edited Jan 17 at 19:19
user635162
asked Jan 17 at 17:35


strelsolstrelsol
245
245
1
$begingroup$
For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
$endgroup$
– C. Zhihao
Jan 17 at 17:41
$begingroup$
Thank you for your help!
$endgroup$
– strelsol
Jan 17 at 17:59
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
$endgroup$
– C. Zhihao
Jan 17 at 17:41
$begingroup$
Thank you for your help!
$endgroup$
– strelsol
Jan 17 at 17:59
1
1
$begingroup$
For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
$endgroup$
– C. Zhihao
Jan 17 at 17:41
$begingroup$
For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
$endgroup$
– C. Zhihao
Jan 17 at 17:41
$begingroup$
Thank you for your help!
$endgroup$
– strelsol
Jan 17 at 17:59
$begingroup$
Thank you for your help!
$endgroup$
– strelsol
Jan 17 at 17:59
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Try this:
Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
$$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Try this:
Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
$$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Try this:
Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
$$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Try this:
Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
$$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.
$endgroup$
Try this:
Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
$$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.
answered Jan 17 at 19:26
David HillDavid Hill
9,1461619
9,1461619
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$begingroup$
For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
$endgroup$
– C. Zhihao
Jan 17 at 17:41
$begingroup$
Thank you for your help!
$endgroup$
– strelsol
Jan 17 at 17:59