Existence of a subspace of the domain of a linear map with specific properties












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$begingroup$


Let $V$, $W$ be two finite-dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{K}$ and $T in L(V,W)$.



Does a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the following properties exist:



$$U cap mathrm{Ker}(T) = {0}$$ and $$ mathrm{Im}(T) = { T(u);|;uin U }$$





My solution:



Let $B_0 = { v_1, dots, v_m } $ be a basis of $mathrm{Ker}(T)$.



Because every basis of a subspace can be expanded to a basis of its vector space, $B_0$ can be expanded to a basis $B$ of $V$:



$$ B = {v_1, dots, v_m, v_{m+1}, dots, v_{n}} $$



Then let $ U = mathrm{span}{v_{m+1}, dots, v_n }$ be the span of the extended vectors.



U now fulfills the first property because the intersection of the span of two linearly independent sets only contains the zero vector.



For the second property I don't know how to get to the property, so far I have:



I now know that $ V = U oplus mathrm{Ker}(T)$ and from
$$ mathrm{dim};V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim};U$$ and
$$mathrm{dim}; V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$$



that $mathrm{dim};U = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$.



And I also know that $T$ restricted to $U$ is injective.



Do these observation help me solve the problem or could someone provide a hint? Thank you










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
    $endgroup$
    – C. Zhihao
    Jan 17 at 17:41










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help!
    $endgroup$
    – strelsol
    Jan 17 at 17:59
















0












$begingroup$


Let $V$, $W$ be two finite-dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{K}$ and $T in L(V,W)$.



Does a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the following properties exist:



$$U cap mathrm{Ker}(T) = {0}$$ and $$ mathrm{Im}(T) = { T(u);|;uin U }$$





My solution:



Let $B_0 = { v_1, dots, v_m } $ be a basis of $mathrm{Ker}(T)$.



Because every basis of a subspace can be expanded to a basis of its vector space, $B_0$ can be expanded to a basis $B$ of $V$:



$$ B = {v_1, dots, v_m, v_{m+1}, dots, v_{n}} $$



Then let $ U = mathrm{span}{v_{m+1}, dots, v_n }$ be the span of the extended vectors.



U now fulfills the first property because the intersection of the span of two linearly independent sets only contains the zero vector.



For the second property I don't know how to get to the property, so far I have:



I now know that $ V = U oplus mathrm{Ker}(T)$ and from
$$ mathrm{dim};V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim};U$$ and
$$mathrm{dim}; V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$$



that $mathrm{dim};U = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$.



And I also know that $T$ restricted to $U$ is injective.



Do these observation help me solve the problem or could someone provide a hint? Thank you










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
    $endgroup$
    – C. Zhihao
    Jan 17 at 17:41










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help!
    $endgroup$
    – strelsol
    Jan 17 at 17:59














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $V$, $W$ be two finite-dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{K}$ and $T in L(V,W)$.



Does a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the following properties exist:



$$U cap mathrm{Ker}(T) = {0}$$ and $$ mathrm{Im}(T) = { T(u);|;uin U }$$





My solution:



Let $B_0 = { v_1, dots, v_m } $ be a basis of $mathrm{Ker}(T)$.



Because every basis of a subspace can be expanded to a basis of its vector space, $B_0$ can be expanded to a basis $B$ of $V$:



$$ B = {v_1, dots, v_m, v_{m+1}, dots, v_{n}} $$



Then let $ U = mathrm{span}{v_{m+1}, dots, v_n }$ be the span of the extended vectors.



U now fulfills the first property because the intersection of the span of two linearly independent sets only contains the zero vector.



For the second property I don't know how to get to the property, so far I have:



I now know that $ V = U oplus mathrm{Ker}(T)$ and from
$$ mathrm{dim};V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim};U$$ and
$$mathrm{dim}; V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$$



that $mathrm{dim};U = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$.



And I also know that $T$ restricted to $U$ is injective.



Do these observation help me solve the problem or could someone provide a hint? Thank you










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $V$, $W$ be two finite-dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{K}$ and $T in L(V,W)$.



Does a subspace $U$ of $V$ with the following properties exist:



$$U cap mathrm{Ker}(T) = {0}$$ and $$ mathrm{Im}(T) = { T(u);|;uin U }$$





My solution:



Let $B_0 = { v_1, dots, v_m } $ be a basis of $mathrm{Ker}(T)$.



Because every basis of a subspace can be expanded to a basis of its vector space, $B_0$ can be expanded to a basis $B$ of $V$:



$$ B = {v_1, dots, v_m, v_{m+1}, dots, v_{n}} $$



Then let $ U = mathrm{span}{v_{m+1}, dots, v_n }$ be the span of the extended vectors.



U now fulfills the first property because the intersection of the span of two linearly independent sets only contains the zero vector.



For the second property I don't know how to get to the property, so far I have:



I now know that $ V = U oplus mathrm{Ker}(T)$ and from
$$ mathrm{dim};V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim};U$$ and
$$mathrm{dim}; V = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Ker}(T)) + mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$$



that $mathrm{dim};U = mathrm{dim}(mathrm{Im}(T))$.



And I also know that $T$ restricted to $U$ is injective.



Do these observation help me solve the problem or could someone provide a hint? Thank you







linear-algebra abstract-algebra vector-spaces linear-transformations






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edited Jan 17 at 19:19







user635162

















asked Jan 17 at 17:35









strelsolstrelsol

245




245








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
    $endgroup$
    – C. Zhihao
    Jan 17 at 17:41










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help!
    $endgroup$
    – strelsol
    Jan 17 at 17:59














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
    $endgroup$
    – C. Zhihao
    Jan 17 at 17:41










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help!
    $endgroup$
    – strelsol
    Jan 17 at 17:59








1




1




$begingroup$
For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
$endgroup$
– C. Zhihao
Jan 17 at 17:41




$begingroup$
For $z = T(v) in Im(T)$, write (uniquely as you showed) $v = u + a$ with $u in U$ and $a in ker(T)$. So you get $z = T(v) = T(u)$.
$endgroup$
– C. Zhihao
Jan 17 at 17:41












$begingroup$
Thank you for your help!
$endgroup$
– strelsol
Jan 17 at 17:59




$begingroup$
Thank you for your help!
$endgroup$
– strelsol
Jan 17 at 17:59










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Try this:



Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
$$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    $begingroup$

    Try this:



    Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
    $$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
    It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Try this:



      Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
      $$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
      It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Try this:



        Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
        $$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
        It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Try this:



        Since $V=Uoplus ker(T)$, any $vin V$ can be written uniquely as $v=u+w$ with $uin U$ and $win ker(T)$. Now compute
        $$T(v)=T(u+w)=T(u)+T(w)=T(u)+0=T(u).$$
        It now follows that $T(V)=T(U)$ as required.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 17 at 19:26









        David HillDavid Hill

        9,1461619




        9,1461619






























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