Finding multiple solutions to the ODE $x'(t) = frac{x(t)}{t^2}$












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I am trying to find a way to characterize infinitely many solutions to the ODE $x'(t)=frac{x(t)}{t^2}$ with $x(0) = 0$. I don't necessarily want an answer, as much as I would like guidance in my approach. I found that $$x(t) = begin{cases}0 & t=0 \
e^{-frac{1}{t}} & t > 0 end{cases}$$

solves this system. My idea to classify infinitely many cases is to find a family of functions $x_s$ that are $0$ until time $s$ and end up similar to $e^{-frac{1}{t}}$ after time $s$. I thought about doing this by defining $$x_s(t) = begin{cases}0 & tleq s \
e^{-frac{1}{t-s}} & t > s end{cases}$$

The problem is that we actually have $x_s'(t) = frac{x_s(t)}{(t-s)^2}$ which doesn't quite solve the system, but is really close. I really think we need the $t-s$ term in the denominator, otherwise $x$ wouldn't be continuous but I don't know how to deal with the fact that this causes it to not solve the system. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction?










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    $begingroup$


    I am trying to find a way to characterize infinitely many solutions to the ODE $x'(t)=frac{x(t)}{t^2}$ with $x(0) = 0$. I don't necessarily want an answer, as much as I would like guidance in my approach. I found that $$x(t) = begin{cases}0 & t=0 \
    e^{-frac{1}{t}} & t > 0 end{cases}$$

    solves this system. My idea to classify infinitely many cases is to find a family of functions $x_s$ that are $0$ until time $s$ and end up similar to $e^{-frac{1}{t}}$ after time $s$. I thought about doing this by defining $$x_s(t) = begin{cases}0 & tleq s \
    e^{-frac{1}{t-s}} & t > s end{cases}$$

    The problem is that we actually have $x_s'(t) = frac{x_s(t)}{(t-s)^2}$ which doesn't quite solve the system, but is really close. I really think we need the $t-s$ term in the denominator, otherwise $x$ wouldn't be continuous but I don't know how to deal with the fact that this causes it to not solve the system. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I am trying to find a way to characterize infinitely many solutions to the ODE $x'(t)=frac{x(t)}{t^2}$ with $x(0) = 0$. I don't necessarily want an answer, as much as I would like guidance in my approach. I found that $$x(t) = begin{cases}0 & t=0 \
      e^{-frac{1}{t}} & t > 0 end{cases}$$

      solves this system. My idea to classify infinitely many cases is to find a family of functions $x_s$ that are $0$ until time $s$ and end up similar to $e^{-frac{1}{t}}$ after time $s$. I thought about doing this by defining $$x_s(t) = begin{cases}0 & tleq s \
      e^{-frac{1}{t-s}} & t > s end{cases}$$

      The problem is that we actually have $x_s'(t) = frac{x_s(t)}{(t-s)^2}$ which doesn't quite solve the system, but is really close. I really think we need the $t-s$ term in the denominator, otherwise $x$ wouldn't be continuous but I don't know how to deal with the fact that this causes it to not solve the system. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am trying to find a way to characterize infinitely many solutions to the ODE $x'(t)=frac{x(t)}{t^2}$ with $x(0) = 0$. I don't necessarily want an answer, as much as I would like guidance in my approach. I found that $$x(t) = begin{cases}0 & t=0 \
      e^{-frac{1}{t}} & t > 0 end{cases}$$

      solves this system. My idea to classify infinitely many cases is to find a family of functions $x_s$ that are $0$ until time $s$ and end up similar to $e^{-frac{1}{t}}$ after time $s$. I thought about doing this by defining $$x_s(t) = begin{cases}0 & tleq s \
      e^{-frac{1}{t-s}} & t > s end{cases}$$

      The problem is that we actually have $x_s'(t) = frac{x_s(t)}{(t-s)^2}$ which doesn't quite solve the system, but is really close. I really think we need the $t-s$ term in the denominator, otherwise $x$ wouldn't be continuous but I don't know how to deal with the fact that this causes it to not solve the system. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction?







      ordinary-differential-equations






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      asked Jan 13 at 22:58









      J. PistachioJ. Pistachio

      488212




      488212






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

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          2












          $begingroup$

          How about the infinite set of solutions
          $$x(t) = begin{cases} 0 & tleq 0 \
          c, e^{-1/t} & t>0 end{cases}$$
          with $c$ an arbitrary constant?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Of course! That is so much simpler than I was anticipating.
            $endgroup$
            – J. Pistachio
            Jan 13 at 23:16



















          2












          $begingroup$

          Your "shifted" solutions are not right. Your equation is separable.
          $$
          frac{dx}{x}=frac{dt}{t^2}.
          $$



          After integration you get
          $$
          ln|x|=-frac 1{t}+c,
          $$

          or
          $$
          x=Ce^{-1/t},qquad C>0.
          $$

          You also have the special solution $x(t)=0$.



          The formula of general solutions works both for $t<0$ and $t>0$. Solutions for $t<0$ approach infinity as $tto 0^-$ except for $x(t)=0$. The solutions for $t>0$ have limit zero as $tto 0^+$. You can formally paste the zero solution for $t<0$ with either solution of the form $x=Ce^{-1/t}$ for $t>0$ by defining $x(0)=0$ but this pasted solution is not a solution of the given equation, since the latter does not make sense at $t=0$.



          Summing up, instead of a shift, you have a dilation parameter $C>0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The first derivative (of the pasted solution) has a limit of $0$ at $t to 0^+$ as well.
            $endgroup$
            – Dylan
            Jan 14 at 8:46













          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          How about the infinite set of solutions
          $$x(t) = begin{cases} 0 & tleq 0 \
          c, e^{-1/t} & t>0 end{cases}$$
          with $c$ an arbitrary constant?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Of course! That is so much simpler than I was anticipating.
            $endgroup$
            – J. Pistachio
            Jan 13 at 23:16
















          2












          $begingroup$

          How about the infinite set of solutions
          $$x(t) = begin{cases} 0 & tleq 0 \
          c, e^{-1/t} & t>0 end{cases}$$
          with $c$ an arbitrary constant?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Of course! That is so much simpler than I was anticipating.
            $endgroup$
            – J. Pistachio
            Jan 13 at 23:16














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          How about the infinite set of solutions
          $$x(t) = begin{cases} 0 & tleq 0 \
          c, e^{-1/t} & t>0 end{cases}$$
          with $c$ an arbitrary constant?






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          How about the infinite set of solutions
          $$x(t) = begin{cases} 0 & tleq 0 \
          c, e^{-1/t} & t>0 end{cases}$$
          with $c$ an arbitrary constant?







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 13 at 23:06









          FabianFabian

          19.8k3674




          19.8k3674












          • $begingroup$
            Of course! That is so much simpler than I was anticipating.
            $endgroup$
            – J. Pistachio
            Jan 13 at 23:16


















          • $begingroup$
            Of course! That is so much simpler than I was anticipating.
            $endgroup$
            – J. Pistachio
            Jan 13 at 23:16
















          $begingroup$
          Of course! That is so much simpler than I was anticipating.
          $endgroup$
          – J. Pistachio
          Jan 13 at 23:16




          $begingroup$
          Of course! That is so much simpler than I was anticipating.
          $endgroup$
          – J. Pistachio
          Jan 13 at 23:16











          2












          $begingroup$

          Your "shifted" solutions are not right. Your equation is separable.
          $$
          frac{dx}{x}=frac{dt}{t^2}.
          $$



          After integration you get
          $$
          ln|x|=-frac 1{t}+c,
          $$

          or
          $$
          x=Ce^{-1/t},qquad C>0.
          $$

          You also have the special solution $x(t)=0$.



          The formula of general solutions works both for $t<0$ and $t>0$. Solutions for $t<0$ approach infinity as $tto 0^-$ except for $x(t)=0$. The solutions for $t>0$ have limit zero as $tto 0^+$. You can formally paste the zero solution for $t<0$ with either solution of the form $x=Ce^{-1/t}$ for $t>0$ by defining $x(0)=0$ but this pasted solution is not a solution of the given equation, since the latter does not make sense at $t=0$.



          Summing up, instead of a shift, you have a dilation parameter $C>0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The first derivative (of the pasted solution) has a limit of $0$ at $t to 0^+$ as well.
            $endgroup$
            – Dylan
            Jan 14 at 8:46


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Your "shifted" solutions are not right. Your equation is separable.
          $$
          frac{dx}{x}=frac{dt}{t^2}.
          $$



          After integration you get
          $$
          ln|x|=-frac 1{t}+c,
          $$

          or
          $$
          x=Ce^{-1/t},qquad C>0.
          $$

          You also have the special solution $x(t)=0$.



          The formula of general solutions works both for $t<0$ and $t>0$. Solutions for $t<0$ approach infinity as $tto 0^-$ except for $x(t)=0$. The solutions for $t>0$ have limit zero as $tto 0^+$. You can formally paste the zero solution for $t<0$ with either solution of the form $x=Ce^{-1/t}$ for $t>0$ by defining $x(0)=0$ but this pasted solution is not a solution of the given equation, since the latter does not make sense at $t=0$.



          Summing up, instead of a shift, you have a dilation parameter $C>0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The first derivative (of the pasted solution) has a limit of $0$ at $t to 0^+$ as well.
            $endgroup$
            – Dylan
            Jan 14 at 8:46
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Your "shifted" solutions are not right. Your equation is separable.
          $$
          frac{dx}{x}=frac{dt}{t^2}.
          $$



          After integration you get
          $$
          ln|x|=-frac 1{t}+c,
          $$

          or
          $$
          x=Ce^{-1/t},qquad C>0.
          $$

          You also have the special solution $x(t)=0$.



          The formula of general solutions works both for $t<0$ and $t>0$. Solutions for $t<0$ approach infinity as $tto 0^-$ except for $x(t)=0$. The solutions for $t>0$ have limit zero as $tto 0^+$. You can formally paste the zero solution for $t<0$ with either solution of the form $x=Ce^{-1/t}$ for $t>0$ by defining $x(0)=0$ but this pasted solution is not a solution of the given equation, since the latter does not make sense at $t=0$.



          Summing up, instead of a shift, you have a dilation parameter $C>0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Your "shifted" solutions are not right. Your equation is separable.
          $$
          frac{dx}{x}=frac{dt}{t^2}.
          $$



          After integration you get
          $$
          ln|x|=-frac 1{t}+c,
          $$

          or
          $$
          x=Ce^{-1/t},qquad C>0.
          $$

          You also have the special solution $x(t)=0$.



          The formula of general solutions works both for $t<0$ and $t>0$. Solutions for $t<0$ approach infinity as $tto 0^-$ except for $x(t)=0$. The solutions for $t>0$ have limit zero as $tto 0^+$. You can formally paste the zero solution for $t<0$ with either solution of the form $x=Ce^{-1/t}$ for $t>0$ by defining $x(0)=0$ but this pasted solution is not a solution of the given equation, since the latter does not make sense at $t=0$.



          Summing up, instead of a shift, you have a dilation parameter $C>0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 13 at 23:16









          GReyesGReyes

          1,25915




          1,25915












          • $begingroup$
            The first derivative (of the pasted solution) has a limit of $0$ at $t to 0^+$ as well.
            $endgroup$
            – Dylan
            Jan 14 at 8:46




















          • $begingroup$
            The first derivative (of the pasted solution) has a limit of $0$ at $t to 0^+$ as well.
            $endgroup$
            – Dylan
            Jan 14 at 8:46


















          $begingroup$
          The first derivative (of the pasted solution) has a limit of $0$ at $t to 0^+$ as well.
          $endgroup$
          – Dylan
          Jan 14 at 8:46






          $begingroup$
          The first derivative (of the pasted solution) has a limit of $0$ at $t to 0^+$ as well.
          $endgroup$
          – Dylan
          Jan 14 at 8:46




















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