Is $f(x,y) = d(x,y)$ a continuous function from a Metric space $X times X$ to $mathbb R$?












2












$begingroup$


Is $f(x,y) = d(x,y)$ a continuous function from a Metric space $X times X$ to $mathbb R$? where $(X , d)$ is a metric space.



My Attempt :



I think it is.



If we take any open ball of radius $epsilon > 0 $ , $(a-epsilon , a+epsilon)$ in $mathbb R$.
, We will get an open preimage in $X times X$.



The preimage will be the union of all $A times B$ where $A$ and $B $ are open balls of radius $frac{epsilon}{2}$ in $X$ whose centers are $a$ units apart.



Have I gone wrong anywhere?



Can anyone please check If I am correct or wrong?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of How to prove the continuity of the metric function?
    $endgroup$
    – Cardioid_Ass_22
    Jan 6 at 15:24
















2












$begingroup$


Is $f(x,y) = d(x,y)$ a continuous function from a Metric space $X times X$ to $mathbb R$? where $(X , d)$ is a metric space.



My Attempt :



I think it is.



If we take any open ball of radius $epsilon > 0 $ , $(a-epsilon , a+epsilon)$ in $mathbb R$.
, We will get an open preimage in $X times X$.



The preimage will be the union of all $A times B$ where $A$ and $B $ are open balls of radius $frac{epsilon}{2}$ in $X$ whose centers are $a$ units apart.



Have I gone wrong anywhere?



Can anyone please check If I am correct or wrong?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of How to prove the continuity of the metric function?
    $endgroup$
    – Cardioid_Ass_22
    Jan 6 at 15:24














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Is $f(x,y) = d(x,y)$ a continuous function from a Metric space $X times X$ to $mathbb R$? where $(X , d)$ is a metric space.



My Attempt :



I think it is.



If we take any open ball of radius $epsilon > 0 $ , $(a-epsilon , a+epsilon)$ in $mathbb R$.
, We will get an open preimage in $X times X$.



The preimage will be the union of all $A times B$ where $A$ and $B $ are open balls of radius $frac{epsilon}{2}$ in $X$ whose centers are $a$ units apart.



Have I gone wrong anywhere?



Can anyone please check If I am correct or wrong?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Is $f(x,y) = d(x,y)$ a continuous function from a Metric space $X times X$ to $mathbb R$? where $(X , d)$ is a metric space.



My Attempt :



I think it is.



If we take any open ball of radius $epsilon > 0 $ , $(a-epsilon , a+epsilon)$ in $mathbb R$.
, We will get an open preimage in $X times X$.



The preimage will be the union of all $A times B$ where $A$ and $B $ are open balls of radius $frac{epsilon}{2}$ in $X$ whose centers are $a$ units apart.



Have I gone wrong anywhere?



Can anyone please check If I am correct or wrong?







general-topology proof-verification continuity metric-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 6 at 15:25









José Carlos Santos

156k22126227




156k22126227










asked Jan 6 at 15:07









cmicmi

1,126212




1,126212












  • $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of How to prove the continuity of the metric function?
    $endgroup$
    – Cardioid_Ass_22
    Jan 6 at 15:24


















  • $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of How to prove the continuity of the metric function?
    $endgroup$
    – Cardioid_Ass_22
    Jan 6 at 15:24
















$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of How to prove the continuity of the metric function?
$endgroup$
– Cardioid_Ass_22
Jan 6 at 15:24




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of How to prove the continuity of the metric function?
$endgroup$
– Cardioid_Ass_22
Jan 6 at 15:24










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Your attempt is interesting, but bot correct. Consider the set$$S={(x,y)in Xtimes X,|,d(x,y)=a}.$$You claimed that$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)=bigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$This would indeed prove that $f$ is continuous, but actually you only have$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$I sugest that you prove that $f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)$ is a neighborhood of all of its points.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I can not understand why you are saying $$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$ ? Can you give an element which is only in the bigger set@Jose Carlos Santos
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @cmi: It might even be that $S$ is empty such that the entire right-hand-side is empty too. For example, this is the case if if $X$ is $mathbb Q$ with the usual distance and $a=sqrt2$. Then for every $varepsilon>0$, the left hand side will contain plenty of pairs.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jan 6 at 15:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm Thank you for saving my time. You are right, of course.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Is the function uniformly continuous on $X times X$?@HenningMakholm
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 16:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Yes, it is.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 16:34



















1












$begingroup$

You want to start from $(x,y)in Xtimes X$ and prove that $d$ is continuous at $(x,y)$.



Let $varepsilon>0$; take $x'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$ and $y'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$; then
$$
d(x',y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y)+d(y,y')le d(x,y)+varepsilon
$$

and therefore
$$
d(x',y')-d(x,y)levarepsilon
$$

Can you finish?



Your idea is good as well, but it should be better justified.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is my attempt wrong?@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:16










  • $begingroup$
    Yea I can conclude by the sequential argument.@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi The idea is good, but it should be more detailed.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi You can do similarly to show that $d(x',y')-d(x,y)ge-varepsilon$, no sequences.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Certainly so.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 16:27











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

Your attempt is interesting, but bot correct. Consider the set$$S={(x,y)in Xtimes X,|,d(x,y)=a}.$$You claimed that$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)=bigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$This would indeed prove that $f$ is continuous, but actually you only have$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$I sugest that you prove that $f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)$ is a neighborhood of all of its points.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I can not understand why you are saying $$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$ ? Can you give an element which is only in the bigger set@Jose Carlos Santos
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @cmi: It might even be that $S$ is empty such that the entire right-hand-side is empty too. For example, this is the case if if $X$ is $mathbb Q$ with the usual distance and $a=sqrt2$. Then for every $varepsilon>0$, the left hand side will contain plenty of pairs.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jan 6 at 15:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm Thank you for saving my time. You are right, of course.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Is the function uniformly continuous on $X times X$?@HenningMakholm
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 16:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Yes, it is.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 16:34
















2












$begingroup$

Your attempt is interesting, but bot correct. Consider the set$$S={(x,y)in Xtimes X,|,d(x,y)=a}.$$You claimed that$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)=bigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$This would indeed prove that $f$ is continuous, but actually you only have$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$I sugest that you prove that $f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)$ is a neighborhood of all of its points.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I can not understand why you are saying $$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$ ? Can you give an element which is only in the bigger set@Jose Carlos Santos
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @cmi: It might even be that $S$ is empty such that the entire right-hand-side is empty too. For example, this is the case if if $X$ is $mathbb Q$ with the usual distance and $a=sqrt2$. Then for every $varepsilon>0$, the left hand side will contain plenty of pairs.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jan 6 at 15:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm Thank you for saving my time. You are right, of course.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Is the function uniformly continuous on $X times X$?@HenningMakholm
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 16:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Yes, it is.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 16:34














2












2








2





$begingroup$

Your attempt is interesting, but bot correct. Consider the set$$S={(x,y)in Xtimes X,|,d(x,y)=a}.$$You claimed that$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)=bigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$This would indeed prove that $f$ is continuous, but actually you only have$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$I sugest that you prove that $f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)$ is a neighborhood of all of its points.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Your attempt is interesting, but bot correct. Consider the set$$S={(x,y)in Xtimes X,|,d(x,y)=a}.$$You claimed that$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)=bigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$This would indeed prove that $f$ is continuous, but actually you only have$$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$I sugest that you prove that $f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)$ is a neighborhood of all of its points.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 6 at 15:20









José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

156k22126227




156k22126227












  • $begingroup$
    I can not understand why you are saying $$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$ ? Can you give an element which is only in the bigger set@Jose Carlos Santos
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @cmi: It might even be that $S$ is empty such that the entire right-hand-side is empty too. For example, this is the case if if $X$ is $mathbb Q$ with the usual distance and $a=sqrt2$. Then for every $varepsilon>0$, the left hand side will contain plenty of pairs.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jan 6 at 15:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm Thank you for saving my time. You are right, of course.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Is the function uniformly continuous on $X times X$?@HenningMakholm
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 16:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Yes, it is.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 16:34


















  • $begingroup$
    I can not understand why you are saying $$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$ ? Can you give an element which is only in the bigger set@Jose Carlos Santos
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @cmi: It might even be that $S$ is empty such that the entire right-hand-side is empty too. For example, this is the case if if $X$ is $mathbb Q$ with the usual distance and $a=sqrt2$. Then for every $varepsilon>0$, the left hand side will contain plenty of pairs.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jan 6 at 15:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @HenningMakholm Thank you for saving my time. You are right, of course.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Is the function uniformly continuous on $X times X$?@HenningMakholm
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 16:26






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Yes, it is.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 6 at 16:34
















$begingroup$
I can not understand why you are saying $$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$ ? Can you give an element which is only in the bigger set@Jose Carlos Santos
$endgroup$
– cmi
Jan 6 at 15:28






$begingroup$
I can not understand why you are saying $$f^{-1}bigl((a-varepsilon,a+varepsilon)bigr)supsetbigcup_{(x,y)in S}B_{fracvarepsilon2}(x)times B_{fracvarepsilon2}(y).$$ ? Can you give an element which is only in the bigger set@Jose Carlos Santos
$endgroup$
– cmi
Jan 6 at 15:28






2




2




$begingroup$
@cmi: It might even be that $S$ is empty such that the entire right-hand-side is empty too. For example, this is the case if if $X$ is $mathbb Q$ with the usual distance and $a=sqrt2$. Then for every $varepsilon>0$, the left hand side will contain plenty of pairs.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Jan 6 at 15:29






$begingroup$
@cmi: It might even be that $S$ is empty such that the entire right-hand-side is empty too. For example, this is the case if if $X$ is $mathbb Q$ with the usual distance and $a=sqrt2$. Then for every $varepsilon>0$, the left hand side will contain plenty of pairs.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Jan 6 at 15:29






1




1




$begingroup$
@HenningMakholm Thank you for saving my time. You are right, of course.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 6 at 15:34




$begingroup$
@HenningMakholm Thank you for saving my time. You are right, of course.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 6 at 15:34












$begingroup$
Is the function uniformly continuous on $X times X$?@HenningMakholm
$endgroup$
– cmi
Jan 6 at 16:26




$begingroup$
Is the function uniformly continuous on $X times X$?@HenningMakholm
$endgroup$
– cmi
Jan 6 at 16:26




1




1




$begingroup$
@cmi Yes, it is.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 6 at 16:34




$begingroup$
@cmi Yes, it is.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 6 at 16:34











1












$begingroup$

You want to start from $(x,y)in Xtimes X$ and prove that $d$ is continuous at $(x,y)$.



Let $varepsilon>0$; take $x'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$ and $y'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$; then
$$
d(x',y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y)+d(y,y')le d(x,y)+varepsilon
$$

and therefore
$$
d(x',y')-d(x,y)levarepsilon
$$

Can you finish?



Your idea is good as well, but it should be better justified.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is my attempt wrong?@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:16










  • $begingroup$
    Yea I can conclude by the sequential argument.@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi The idea is good, but it should be more detailed.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi You can do similarly to show that $d(x',y')-d(x,y)ge-varepsilon$, no sequences.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Certainly so.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 16:27
















1












$begingroup$

You want to start from $(x,y)in Xtimes X$ and prove that $d$ is continuous at $(x,y)$.



Let $varepsilon>0$; take $x'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$ and $y'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$; then
$$
d(x',y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y)+d(y,y')le d(x,y)+varepsilon
$$

and therefore
$$
d(x',y')-d(x,y)levarepsilon
$$

Can you finish?



Your idea is good as well, but it should be better justified.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is my attempt wrong?@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:16










  • $begingroup$
    Yea I can conclude by the sequential argument.@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi The idea is good, but it should be more detailed.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi You can do similarly to show that $d(x',y')-d(x,y)ge-varepsilon$, no sequences.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Certainly so.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 16:27














1












1








1





$begingroup$

You want to start from $(x,y)in Xtimes X$ and prove that $d$ is continuous at $(x,y)$.



Let $varepsilon>0$; take $x'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$ and $y'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$; then
$$
d(x',y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y)+d(y,y')le d(x,y)+varepsilon
$$

and therefore
$$
d(x',y')-d(x,y)levarepsilon
$$

Can you finish?



Your idea is good as well, but it should be better justified.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



You want to start from $(x,y)in Xtimes X$ and prove that $d$ is continuous at $(x,y)$.



Let $varepsilon>0$; take $x'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$ and $y'in B(x,varepsilon/2)$; then
$$
d(x',y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y')le d(x',x)+d(x,y)+d(y,y')le d(x,y)+varepsilon
$$

and therefore
$$
d(x',y')-d(x,y)levarepsilon
$$

Can you finish?



Your idea is good as well, but it should be better justified.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 6 at 15:16

























answered Jan 6 at 15:15









egregegreg

180k1485202




180k1485202












  • $begingroup$
    Is my attempt wrong?@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:16










  • $begingroup$
    Yea I can conclude by the sequential argument.@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi The idea is good, but it should be more detailed.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi You can do similarly to show that $d(x',y')-d(x,y)ge-varepsilon$, no sequences.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Certainly so.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 16:27


















  • $begingroup$
    Is my attempt wrong?@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:16










  • $begingroup$
    Yea I can conclude by the sequential argument.@egreg
    $endgroup$
    – cmi
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi The idea is good, but it should be more detailed.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:17






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi You can do similarly to show that $d(x',y')-d(x,y)ge-varepsilon$, no sequences.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @cmi Certainly so.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Jan 6 at 16:27
















$begingroup$
Is my attempt wrong?@egreg
$endgroup$
– cmi
Jan 6 at 15:16




$begingroup$
Is my attempt wrong?@egreg
$endgroup$
– cmi
Jan 6 at 15:16












$begingroup$
Yea I can conclude by the sequential argument.@egreg
$endgroup$
– cmi
Jan 6 at 15:17




$begingroup$
Yea I can conclude by the sequential argument.@egreg
$endgroup$
– cmi
Jan 6 at 15:17




1




1




$begingroup$
@cmi The idea is good, but it should be more detailed.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 6 at 15:17




$begingroup$
@cmi The idea is good, but it should be more detailed.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 6 at 15:17




1




1




$begingroup$
@cmi You can do similarly to show that $d(x',y')-d(x,y)ge-varepsilon$, no sequences.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 6 at 15:18




$begingroup$
@cmi You can do similarly to show that $d(x',y')-d(x,y)ge-varepsilon$, no sequences.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 6 at 15:18




1




1




$begingroup$
@cmi Certainly so.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 6 at 16:27




$begingroup$
@cmi Certainly so.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Jan 6 at 16:27


















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