How to Calculate $int_{S} xyz~d{sigma}$ where $S$ is the portion $x+y+z=1$ in the first octant $ 0 leq x , 0...












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Calculate $int_{S} xyz~d{sigma}$ where $S$ :



is the portion $x+y+z=1$ in the first octant $ 0 leq x , 0 leq y , 0 leq z$ .




should i calculate



$sqrt{3}int_0^1int_0^{1-x} (xy-x^2y-xy^2) dy~dx$ =



= $sqrt{3}~int_0^1int_0^1 (u-1)(u-v)(v)~du~dv$



where :$ ~~~~~u = x+y ~,~~~~ v=x ~~~, ~~~Jacobian = -1$



and so the full answer is $boxed{frac{sqrt{3}}{12}}$










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    2












    $begingroup$



    Calculate $int_{S} xyz~d{sigma}$ where $S$ :



    is the portion $x+y+z=1$ in the first octant $ 0 leq x , 0 leq y , 0 leq z$ .




    should i calculate



    $sqrt{3}int_0^1int_0^{1-x} (xy-x^2y-xy^2) dy~dx$ =



    = $sqrt{3}~int_0^1int_0^1 (u-1)(u-v)(v)~du~dv$



    where :$ ~~~~~u = x+y ~,~~~~ v=x ~~~, ~~~Jacobian = -1$



    and so the full answer is $boxed{frac{sqrt{3}}{12}}$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      0



      $begingroup$



      Calculate $int_{S} xyz~d{sigma}$ where $S$ :



      is the portion $x+y+z=1$ in the first octant $ 0 leq x , 0 leq y , 0 leq z$ .




      should i calculate



      $sqrt{3}int_0^1int_0^{1-x} (xy-x^2y-xy^2) dy~dx$ =



      = $sqrt{3}~int_0^1int_0^1 (u-1)(u-v)(v)~du~dv$



      where :$ ~~~~~u = x+y ~,~~~~ v=x ~~~, ~~~Jacobian = -1$



      and so the full answer is $boxed{frac{sqrt{3}}{12}}$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Calculate $int_{S} xyz~d{sigma}$ where $S$ :



      is the portion $x+y+z=1$ in the first octant $ 0 leq x , 0 leq y , 0 leq z$ .




      should i calculate



      $sqrt{3}int_0^1int_0^{1-x} (xy-x^2y-xy^2) dy~dx$ =



      = $sqrt{3}~int_0^1int_0^1 (u-1)(u-v)(v)~du~dv$



      where :$ ~~~~~u = x+y ~,~~~~ v=x ~~~, ~~~Jacobian = -1$



      and so the full answer is $boxed{frac{sqrt{3}}{12}}$







      multivariable-calculus surface-integrals






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      edited Jan 15 at 11:24







      Mather

















      asked Jan 15 at 11:14









      Mather Mather

      3367




      3367






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          The integrated region in the $xy$ plane is ${(x,y):x,yge0,x+yle1}$. $$0le xle1implies0le vle1\0le yle1implies0le u-vle1\0le x+yle1implies0le ule1$$FigureThe integrated region in $uv$ plane is the intersection of the solution regions of the above three inequalities in $u,v$;$${(u,v):0le vle ule 1,vle1}$$which is not very different from the original integral. Also note that when applying change of coordinates, you are supposed to multiply by the absolute value of the jacobian. The integral should look like$$sqrt{3}int_0^1int_v^1v(1-u)(u-v)~du~dv$$which gives the answer as $dfrac{sqrt3}{120}$.





          Remark. You could just as well avoid the change of coordinates and solve it directly.$$sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x} xy(1-x-y)dy~dx=sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x}x(1-x)y-xy^2dy~dx\=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x(1-x)^3}6dx=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x^3(1-x)}6dx=frac{sqrt3}{120}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            i didn't understand why $0le yle1implies0le u-vle1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:14












          • $begingroup$
            It is because $y$ is $(x+y)-x=u-v$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:15












          • $begingroup$
            but $ 0 leq y leq (1-x) $ not $ 0 leq y leq 1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:18












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is covered in the third statement. $x+yle1implies ule1$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:19










          • $begingroup$
            if $y=1$ and $x=1$ then $z < 0$ and they want $0 leq z $
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:20













          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          The integrated region in the $xy$ plane is ${(x,y):x,yge0,x+yle1}$. $$0le xle1implies0le vle1\0le yle1implies0le u-vle1\0le x+yle1implies0le ule1$$FigureThe integrated region in $uv$ plane is the intersection of the solution regions of the above three inequalities in $u,v$;$${(u,v):0le vle ule 1,vle1}$$which is not very different from the original integral. Also note that when applying change of coordinates, you are supposed to multiply by the absolute value of the jacobian. The integral should look like$$sqrt{3}int_0^1int_v^1v(1-u)(u-v)~du~dv$$which gives the answer as $dfrac{sqrt3}{120}$.





          Remark. You could just as well avoid the change of coordinates and solve it directly.$$sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x} xy(1-x-y)dy~dx=sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x}x(1-x)y-xy^2dy~dx\=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x(1-x)^3}6dx=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x^3(1-x)}6dx=frac{sqrt3}{120}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            i didn't understand why $0le yle1implies0le u-vle1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:14












          • $begingroup$
            It is because $y$ is $(x+y)-x=u-v$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:15












          • $begingroup$
            but $ 0 leq y leq (1-x) $ not $ 0 leq y leq 1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:18












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is covered in the third statement. $x+yle1implies ule1$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:19










          • $begingroup$
            if $y=1$ and $x=1$ then $z < 0$ and they want $0 leq z $
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:20


















          0












          $begingroup$

          The integrated region in the $xy$ plane is ${(x,y):x,yge0,x+yle1}$. $$0le xle1implies0le vle1\0le yle1implies0le u-vle1\0le x+yle1implies0le ule1$$FigureThe integrated region in $uv$ plane is the intersection of the solution regions of the above three inequalities in $u,v$;$${(u,v):0le vle ule 1,vle1}$$which is not very different from the original integral. Also note that when applying change of coordinates, you are supposed to multiply by the absolute value of the jacobian. The integral should look like$$sqrt{3}int_0^1int_v^1v(1-u)(u-v)~du~dv$$which gives the answer as $dfrac{sqrt3}{120}$.





          Remark. You could just as well avoid the change of coordinates and solve it directly.$$sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x} xy(1-x-y)dy~dx=sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x}x(1-x)y-xy^2dy~dx\=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x(1-x)^3}6dx=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x^3(1-x)}6dx=frac{sqrt3}{120}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            i didn't understand why $0le yle1implies0le u-vle1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:14












          • $begingroup$
            It is because $y$ is $(x+y)-x=u-v$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:15












          • $begingroup$
            but $ 0 leq y leq (1-x) $ not $ 0 leq y leq 1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:18












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is covered in the third statement. $x+yle1implies ule1$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:19










          • $begingroup$
            if $y=1$ and $x=1$ then $z < 0$ and they want $0 leq z $
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:20
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          The integrated region in the $xy$ plane is ${(x,y):x,yge0,x+yle1}$. $$0le xle1implies0le vle1\0le yle1implies0le u-vle1\0le x+yle1implies0le ule1$$FigureThe integrated region in $uv$ plane is the intersection of the solution regions of the above three inequalities in $u,v$;$${(u,v):0le vle ule 1,vle1}$$which is not very different from the original integral. Also note that when applying change of coordinates, you are supposed to multiply by the absolute value of the jacobian. The integral should look like$$sqrt{3}int_0^1int_v^1v(1-u)(u-v)~du~dv$$which gives the answer as $dfrac{sqrt3}{120}$.





          Remark. You could just as well avoid the change of coordinates and solve it directly.$$sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x} xy(1-x-y)dy~dx=sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x}x(1-x)y-xy^2dy~dx\=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x(1-x)^3}6dx=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x^3(1-x)}6dx=frac{sqrt3}{120}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The integrated region in the $xy$ plane is ${(x,y):x,yge0,x+yle1}$. $$0le xle1implies0le vle1\0le yle1implies0le u-vle1\0le x+yle1implies0le ule1$$FigureThe integrated region in $uv$ plane is the intersection of the solution regions of the above three inequalities in $u,v$;$${(u,v):0le vle ule 1,vle1}$$which is not very different from the original integral. Also note that when applying change of coordinates, you are supposed to multiply by the absolute value of the jacobian. The integral should look like$$sqrt{3}int_0^1int_v^1v(1-u)(u-v)~du~dv$$which gives the answer as $dfrac{sqrt3}{120}$.





          Remark. You could just as well avoid the change of coordinates and solve it directly.$$sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x} xy(1-x-y)dy~dx=sqrt3int_0^1int_0^{1-x}x(1-x)y-xy^2dy~dx\=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x(1-x)^3}6dx=sqrt3int_0^1frac{x^3(1-x)}6dx=frac{sqrt3}{120}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 15 at 12:35

























          answered Jan 15 at 12:01









          Shubham JohriShubham Johri

          5,177717




          5,177717












          • $begingroup$
            i didn't understand why $0le yle1implies0le u-vle1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:14












          • $begingroup$
            It is because $y$ is $(x+y)-x=u-v$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:15












          • $begingroup$
            but $ 0 leq y leq (1-x) $ not $ 0 leq y leq 1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:18












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is covered in the third statement. $x+yle1implies ule1$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:19










          • $begingroup$
            if $y=1$ and $x=1$ then $z < 0$ and they want $0 leq z $
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:20




















          • $begingroup$
            i didn't understand why $0le yle1implies0le u-vle1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:14












          • $begingroup$
            It is because $y$ is $(x+y)-x=u-v$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:15












          • $begingroup$
            but $ 0 leq y leq (1-x) $ not $ 0 leq y leq 1$
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:18












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is covered in the third statement. $x+yle1implies ule1$
            $endgroup$
            – Shubham Johri
            Jan 15 at 12:19










          • $begingroup$
            if $y=1$ and $x=1$ then $z < 0$ and they want $0 leq z $
            $endgroup$
            – Mather
            Jan 15 at 12:20


















          $begingroup$
          i didn't understand why $0le yle1implies0le u-vle1$
          $endgroup$
          – Mather
          Jan 15 at 12:14






          $begingroup$
          i didn't understand why $0le yle1implies0le u-vle1$
          $endgroup$
          – Mather
          Jan 15 at 12:14














          $begingroup$
          It is because $y$ is $(x+y)-x=u-v$
          $endgroup$
          – Shubham Johri
          Jan 15 at 12:15






          $begingroup$
          It is because $y$ is $(x+y)-x=u-v$
          $endgroup$
          – Shubham Johri
          Jan 15 at 12:15














          $begingroup$
          but $ 0 leq y leq (1-x) $ not $ 0 leq y leq 1$
          $endgroup$
          – Mather
          Jan 15 at 12:18






          $begingroup$
          but $ 0 leq y leq (1-x) $ not $ 0 leq y leq 1$
          $endgroup$
          – Mather
          Jan 15 at 12:18














          $begingroup$
          Yes, that is covered in the third statement. $x+yle1implies ule1$
          $endgroup$
          – Shubham Johri
          Jan 15 at 12:19




          $begingroup$
          Yes, that is covered in the third statement. $x+yle1implies ule1$
          $endgroup$
          – Shubham Johri
          Jan 15 at 12:19












          $begingroup$
          if $y=1$ and $x=1$ then $z < 0$ and they want $0 leq z $
          $endgroup$
          – Mather
          Jan 15 at 12:20






          $begingroup$
          if $y=1$ and $x=1$ then $z < 0$ and they want $0 leq z $
          $endgroup$
          – Mather
          Jan 15 at 12:20




















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