Quotient group of the dihedral group by $langle r^2 rangle.$












1












$begingroup$



Show that $G/H$ is abelian, where $G$ is the dihedral group $$ G={langle r,, f mid r^n=f^2=1,, rf=fr^{-1}rangle}$$
and $H$ is the subgroup $langle r^2 rangle.$




I've tried showing that for $a,b in G$ then $ar^{2i}br^{2j}=br^{2i}ar^{2j}$ but im sure if the steps I used are true.
$$begin{align}
ar^{2i}br^{2j} &=r^{2i}a^{-1}br^{2j}\
&=r^{2i}b^{-1}ar^{2j} \
&=br^{2i}ar^{2j}.
end{align}$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$



    Show that $G/H$ is abelian, where $G$ is the dihedral group $$ G={langle r,, f mid r^n=f^2=1,, rf=fr^{-1}rangle}$$
    and $H$ is the subgroup $langle r^2 rangle.$




    I've tried showing that for $a,b in G$ then $ar^{2i}br^{2j}=br^{2i}ar^{2j}$ but im sure if the steps I used are true.
    $$begin{align}
    ar^{2i}br^{2j} &=r^{2i}a^{-1}br^{2j}\
    &=r^{2i}b^{-1}ar^{2j} \
    &=br^{2i}ar^{2j}.
    end{align}$$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$



      Show that $G/H$ is abelian, where $G$ is the dihedral group $$ G={langle r,, f mid r^n=f^2=1,, rf=fr^{-1}rangle}$$
      and $H$ is the subgroup $langle r^2 rangle.$




      I've tried showing that for $a,b in G$ then $ar^{2i}br^{2j}=br^{2i}ar^{2j}$ but im sure if the steps I used are true.
      $$begin{align}
      ar^{2i}br^{2j} &=r^{2i}a^{-1}br^{2j}\
      &=r^{2i}b^{-1}ar^{2j} \
      &=br^{2i}ar^{2j}.
      end{align}$$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Show that $G/H$ is abelian, where $G$ is the dihedral group $$ G={langle r,, f mid r^n=f^2=1,, rf=fr^{-1}rangle}$$
      and $H$ is the subgroup $langle r^2 rangle.$




      I've tried showing that for $a,b in G$ then $ar^{2i}br^{2j}=br^{2i}ar^{2j}$ but im sure if the steps I used are true.
      $$begin{align}
      ar^{2i}br^{2j} &=r^{2i}a^{-1}br^{2j}\
      &=r^{2i}b^{-1}ar^{2j} \
      &=br^{2i}ar^{2j}.
      end{align}$$







      group-theory finite-groups group-presentation dihedral-groups quotient-group






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      edited Jan 12 at 12:34









      Shaun

      9,083113683




      9,083113683










      asked Jan 11 at 17:51







      user633852





























          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Hint If $n$ is odd, $midlangle r^2ranglemid=midlangle rrangle mid=n$. Hence the index is $2$. That is, $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle=C_2$.



          If $n$ is even, $mid langle r^2rangle mid=n/2$. Thus the index is $4$. Thus $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle $ has order $4$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            One way to look at this is to note that



            $$begin{align}
            G/H &conglangle r, fmid r^2=1, r^n=f^2=1, rf=fr^{-1}rangle \
            &conglangle r, fmid r^{gcd(2, n)}=f^2=1, underbrace{rf=fr}_{r^2=1}rangle \
            &cong Bbb Z_{gcd(2,n)}timesBbb Z_2,
            end{align}$$



            where the first isomorphism$^dagger$ holds because $G/H$ is, essentially, just introducing the relation $r^2=1$ to $G$; the second isomorphism is a consequence of manipulating the relations in the first presentation above (and a standard result on the $gcd$ of powers of the same generator of a presentation); and the latter is, again, standard, since one just has to recognise a typical presentation for the direct product cyclic groups.





            $dagger$ A presentation is not a group, technically speaking. What I am referring to is the group defined by the presentation.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2












              $begingroup$

              Hint If $n$ is odd, $midlangle r^2ranglemid=midlangle rrangle mid=n$. Hence the index is $2$. That is, $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle=C_2$.



              If $n$ is even, $mid langle r^2rangle mid=n/2$. Thus the index is $4$. Thus $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle $ has order $4$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                Hint If $n$ is odd, $midlangle r^2ranglemid=midlangle rrangle mid=n$. Hence the index is $2$. That is, $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle=C_2$.



                If $n$ is even, $mid langle r^2rangle mid=n/2$. Thus the index is $4$. Thus $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle $ has order $4$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Hint If $n$ is odd, $midlangle r^2ranglemid=midlangle rrangle mid=n$. Hence the index is $2$. That is, $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle=C_2$.



                  If $n$ is even, $mid langle r^2rangle mid=n/2$. Thus the index is $4$. Thus $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle $ has order $4$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Hint If $n$ is odd, $midlangle r^2ranglemid=midlangle rrangle mid=n$. Hence the index is $2$. That is, $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle=C_2$.



                  If $n$ is even, $mid langle r^2rangle mid=n/2$. Thus the index is $4$. Thus $D_{2n}/langle r^2rangle $ has order $4$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jan 11 at 18:52

























                  answered Jan 11 at 18:33









                  Chris CusterChris Custer

                  13.1k3827




                  13.1k3827























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      One way to look at this is to note that



                      $$begin{align}
                      G/H &conglangle r, fmid r^2=1, r^n=f^2=1, rf=fr^{-1}rangle \
                      &conglangle r, fmid r^{gcd(2, n)}=f^2=1, underbrace{rf=fr}_{r^2=1}rangle \
                      &cong Bbb Z_{gcd(2,n)}timesBbb Z_2,
                      end{align}$$



                      where the first isomorphism$^dagger$ holds because $G/H$ is, essentially, just introducing the relation $r^2=1$ to $G$; the second isomorphism is a consequence of manipulating the relations in the first presentation above (and a standard result on the $gcd$ of powers of the same generator of a presentation); and the latter is, again, standard, since one just has to recognise a typical presentation for the direct product cyclic groups.





                      $dagger$ A presentation is not a group, technically speaking. What I am referring to is the group defined by the presentation.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        One way to look at this is to note that



                        $$begin{align}
                        G/H &conglangle r, fmid r^2=1, r^n=f^2=1, rf=fr^{-1}rangle \
                        &conglangle r, fmid r^{gcd(2, n)}=f^2=1, underbrace{rf=fr}_{r^2=1}rangle \
                        &cong Bbb Z_{gcd(2,n)}timesBbb Z_2,
                        end{align}$$



                        where the first isomorphism$^dagger$ holds because $G/H$ is, essentially, just introducing the relation $r^2=1$ to $G$; the second isomorphism is a consequence of manipulating the relations in the first presentation above (and a standard result on the $gcd$ of powers of the same generator of a presentation); and the latter is, again, standard, since one just has to recognise a typical presentation for the direct product cyclic groups.





                        $dagger$ A presentation is not a group, technically speaking. What I am referring to is the group defined by the presentation.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          One way to look at this is to note that



                          $$begin{align}
                          G/H &conglangle r, fmid r^2=1, r^n=f^2=1, rf=fr^{-1}rangle \
                          &conglangle r, fmid r^{gcd(2, n)}=f^2=1, underbrace{rf=fr}_{r^2=1}rangle \
                          &cong Bbb Z_{gcd(2,n)}timesBbb Z_2,
                          end{align}$$



                          where the first isomorphism$^dagger$ holds because $G/H$ is, essentially, just introducing the relation $r^2=1$ to $G$; the second isomorphism is a consequence of manipulating the relations in the first presentation above (and a standard result on the $gcd$ of powers of the same generator of a presentation); and the latter is, again, standard, since one just has to recognise a typical presentation for the direct product cyclic groups.





                          $dagger$ A presentation is not a group, technically speaking. What I am referring to is the group defined by the presentation.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          One way to look at this is to note that



                          $$begin{align}
                          G/H &conglangle r, fmid r^2=1, r^n=f^2=1, rf=fr^{-1}rangle \
                          &conglangle r, fmid r^{gcd(2, n)}=f^2=1, underbrace{rf=fr}_{r^2=1}rangle \
                          &cong Bbb Z_{gcd(2,n)}timesBbb Z_2,
                          end{align}$$



                          where the first isomorphism$^dagger$ holds because $G/H$ is, essentially, just introducing the relation $r^2=1$ to $G$; the second isomorphism is a consequence of manipulating the relations in the first presentation above (and a standard result on the $gcd$ of powers of the same generator of a presentation); and the latter is, again, standard, since one just has to recognise a typical presentation for the direct product cyclic groups.





                          $dagger$ A presentation is not a group, technically speaking. What I am referring to is the group defined by the presentation.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 12 at 12:50









                          ShaunShaun

                          9,083113683




                          9,083113683






























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