About Riesz representation theorem












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$begingroup$



Let $X=l_p^{(3)}$, where $1lt p lt infty$, and $phi(x) = x_1-2x_2+3x_3$.



Decide whether $phi$ is bounded, and if so, find $||phi||$.




So by marking $y=(1,-2,3)$, we can see that $phi(x)=sum_{j=1}^3x_iy_i$.



Therefore, by Riesz representation theorem, we get that $||phi||=||y||=(1+2^p+3^p)^{frac{1}{p}}$.



However, in the book that I study, the final answer is $(1+2^q+3^q)^{frac{1}{q}}$, where $1lt qlt infty$ and $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.



I know that $l_p^*=l_q$... But why $yin l_q$ and not $yin l_p$?










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$



    Let $X=l_p^{(3)}$, where $1lt p lt infty$, and $phi(x) = x_1-2x_2+3x_3$.



    Decide whether $phi$ is bounded, and if so, find $||phi||$.




    So by marking $y=(1,-2,3)$, we can see that $phi(x)=sum_{j=1}^3x_iy_i$.



    Therefore, by Riesz representation theorem, we get that $||phi||=||y||=(1+2^p+3^p)^{frac{1}{p}}$.



    However, in the book that I study, the final answer is $(1+2^q+3^q)^{frac{1}{q}}$, where $1lt qlt infty$ and $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.



    I know that $l_p^*=l_q$... But why $yin l_q$ and not $yin l_p$?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      Let $X=l_p^{(3)}$, where $1lt p lt infty$, and $phi(x) = x_1-2x_2+3x_3$.



      Decide whether $phi$ is bounded, and if so, find $||phi||$.




      So by marking $y=(1,-2,3)$, we can see that $phi(x)=sum_{j=1}^3x_iy_i$.



      Therefore, by Riesz representation theorem, we get that $||phi||=||y||=(1+2^p+3^p)^{frac{1}{p}}$.



      However, in the book that I study, the final answer is $(1+2^q+3^q)^{frac{1}{q}}$, where $1lt qlt infty$ and $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.



      I know that $l_p^*=l_q$... But why $yin l_q$ and not $yin l_p$?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Let $X=l_p^{(3)}$, where $1lt p lt infty$, and $phi(x) = x_1-2x_2+3x_3$.



      Decide whether $phi$ is bounded, and if so, find $||phi||$.




      So by marking $y=(1,-2,3)$, we can see that $phi(x)=sum_{j=1}^3x_iy_i$.



      Therefore, by Riesz representation theorem, we get that $||phi||=||y||=(1+2^p+3^p)^{frac{1}{p}}$.



      However, in the book that I study, the final answer is $(1+2^q+3^q)^{frac{1}{q}}$, where $1lt qlt infty$ and $frac{1}{p}+frac{1}{q}=1$.



      I know that $l_p^*=l_q$... But why $yin l_q$ and not $yin l_p$?







      linear-algebra functional-analysis hilbert-spaces riesz-representation-theorem






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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 12 at 17:42









      ChikChakChikChak

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      759418






















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