Are these extensions separable.












0












$begingroup$


Let $K[x]$ be a polynomial ring over the field $K$ and $F$ a subring of $K$. If $F$ is a perfect field and $f(x) in F[x]$ has no repeated irreducible factors in $F[x]$, prove that $f(x)$ has no repeated irreducible factors in $K[x]$.



My proof:



Let $f(x) in F[x]$. Then as $F$ is a perfect field then we have that $$f(x) = g(x)^p$$
for some $g(x) in F[x]$. But $f$ cannot have any repeated irreducible factors so that if $p geq 2$ then we would have a repeated irreducible factor. Therefore we conclude that the field must have characteristic 0. Thus $(f,f') =1$ since all of its irreducible factors must be separable in $F[x]$ and so in $K[x]$ as well. But this implies that $f$ is separable over $K[x]$ and thus cannot have any repeated irreducible factor.



Is my argument correct? If so, are there any ways I could improve this proof. Thanks in advance!










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This has an answer at this site; start searching from this question with related links.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 23 at 21:38
















0












$begingroup$


Let $K[x]$ be a polynomial ring over the field $K$ and $F$ a subring of $K$. If $F$ is a perfect field and $f(x) in F[x]$ has no repeated irreducible factors in $F[x]$, prove that $f(x)$ has no repeated irreducible factors in $K[x]$.



My proof:



Let $f(x) in F[x]$. Then as $F$ is a perfect field then we have that $$f(x) = g(x)^p$$
for some $g(x) in F[x]$. But $f$ cannot have any repeated irreducible factors so that if $p geq 2$ then we would have a repeated irreducible factor. Therefore we conclude that the field must have characteristic 0. Thus $(f,f') =1$ since all of its irreducible factors must be separable in $F[x]$ and so in $K[x]$ as well. But this implies that $f$ is separable over $K[x]$ and thus cannot have any repeated irreducible factor.



Is my argument correct? If so, are there any ways I could improve this proof. Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This has an answer at this site; start searching from this question with related links.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 23 at 21:38














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $K[x]$ be a polynomial ring over the field $K$ and $F$ a subring of $K$. If $F$ is a perfect field and $f(x) in F[x]$ has no repeated irreducible factors in $F[x]$, prove that $f(x)$ has no repeated irreducible factors in $K[x]$.



My proof:



Let $f(x) in F[x]$. Then as $F$ is a perfect field then we have that $$f(x) = g(x)^p$$
for some $g(x) in F[x]$. But $f$ cannot have any repeated irreducible factors so that if $p geq 2$ then we would have a repeated irreducible factor. Therefore we conclude that the field must have characteristic 0. Thus $(f,f') =1$ since all of its irreducible factors must be separable in $F[x]$ and so in $K[x]$ as well. But this implies that $f$ is separable over $K[x]$ and thus cannot have any repeated irreducible factor.



Is my argument correct? If so, are there any ways I could improve this proof. Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $K[x]$ be a polynomial ring over the field $K$ and $F$ a subring of $K$. If $F$ is a perfect field and $f(x) in F[x]$ has no repeated irreducible factors in $F[x]$, prove that $f(x)$ has no repeated irreducible factors in $K[x]$.



My proof:



Let $f(x) in F[x]$. Then as $F$ is a perfect field then we have that $$f(x) = g(x)^p$$
for some $g(x) in F[x]$. But $f$ cannot have any repeated irreducible factors so that if $p geq 2$ then we would have a repeated irreducible factor. Therefore we conclude that the field must have characteristic 0. Thus $(f,f') =1$ since all of its irreducible factors must be separable in $F[x]$ and so in $K[x]$ as well. But this implies that $f$ is separable over $K[x]$ and thus cannot have any repeated irreducible factor.



Is my argument correct? If so, are there any ways I could improve this proof. Thanks in advance!







abstract-algebra proof-verification






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 23 at 21:53









Bernard

123k741116




123k741116










asked Jan 23 at 21:27









Justin StevensonJustin Stevenson

957519




957519












  • $begingroup$
    This has an answer at this site; start searching from this question with related links.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 23 at 21:38


















  • $begingroup$
    This has an answer at this site; start searching from this question with related links.
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 23 at 21:38
















$begingroup$
This has an answer at this site; start searching from this question with related links.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 23 at 21:38




$begingroup$
This has an answer at this site; start searching from this question with related links.
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 23 at 21:38










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