Find the probability of $a>b+c$, where $a$, $b$, $c$ are $U(0,1)$












3












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What is the probability that $a > b + c$?



$a, b, c$ are picked independently and uniformly at random from bounded interval [0,1] of $mathbb{R}$.










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    Welcome to Math.SE! Please, consider updating your question to include what you have tried and where you are getting stuck. That way, people on this site will know exactly what help you need.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Oct 14 '13 at 9:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    what interval is involved here? It is important to know that. For instance if it is something like $left(5,6right)$ then automatically $a<b+c$. So the probability you mention is $0$ in that case.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Oct 14 '13 at 9:23


















3












$begingroup$


What is the probability that $a > b + c$?



$a, b, c$ are picked independently and uniformly at random from bounded interval [0,1] of $mathbb{R}$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Welcome to Math.SE! Please, consider updating your question to include what you have tried and where you are getting stuck. That way, people on this site will know exactly what help you need.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Oct 14 '13 at 9:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    what interval is involved here? It is important to know that. For instance if it is something like $left(5,6right)$ then automatically $a<b+c$. So the probability you mention is $0$ in that case.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Oct 14 '13 at 9:23
















3












3








3


1



$begingroup$


What is the probability that $a > b + c$?



$a, b, c$ are picked independently and uniformly at random from bounded interval [0,1] of $mathbb{R}$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




What is the probability that $a > b + c$?



$a, b, c$ are picked independently and uniformly at random from bounded interval [0,1] of $mathbb{R}$.







probability uniform-distribution






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edited Oct 14 '13 at 10:58









martini

70.7k45991




70.7k45991










asked Oct 14 '13 at 9:15









TalitaTalita

22639




22639








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Welcome to Math.SE! Please, consider updating your question to include what you have tried and where you are getting stuck. That way, people on this site will know exactly what help you need.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Oct 14 '13 at 9:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    what interval is involved here? It is important to know that. For instance if it is something like $left(5,6right)$ then automatically $a<b+c$. So the probability you mention is $0$ in that case.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Oct 14 '13 at 9:23
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Welcome to Math.SE! Please, consider updating your question to include what you have tried and where you are getting stuck. That way, people on this site will know exactly what help you need.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Oct 14 '13 at 9:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    what interval is involved here? It is important to know that. For instance if it is something like $left(5,6right)$ then automatically $a<b+c$. So the probability you mention is $0$ in that case.
    $endgroup$
    – drhab
    Oct 14 '13 at 9:23










2




2




$begingroup$
Welcome to Math.SE! Please, consider updating your question to include what you have tried and where you are getting stuck. That way, people on this site will know exactly what help you need.
$endgroup$
– Did
Oct 14 '13 at 9:18




$begingroup$
Welcome to Math.SE! Please, consider updating your question to include what you have tried and where you are getting stuck. That way, people on this site will know exactly what help you need.
$endgroup$
– Did
Oct 14 '13 at 9:18




1




1




$begingroup$
what interval is involved here? It is important to know that. For instance if it is something like $left(5,6right)$ then automatically $a<b+c$. So the probability you mention is $0$ in that case.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Oct 14 '13 at 9:23






$begingroup$
what interval is involved here? It is important to know that. For instance if it is something like $left(5,6right)$ then automatically $a<b+c$. So the probability you mention is $0$ in that case.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Oct 14 '13 at 9:23












4 Answers
4






active

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9












$begingroup$

abc probability



Probability as the volume of a pyramid $V = frac{1}{3}Sh = frac{1}{3}cdotfrac{1}{2}cdot1 = frac{1}{6}.$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    4












    $begingroup$

    Let $d = b + c$.



    $d$ has the Irwin-Hall distribution with $n=2$ independent variables.



    Its CDF is equal to $F_d(x)=frac{1}{n!}sum_{k=0}^{lfloor xrfloor}(-1)^kbinom{n}{k}(x-k)^n$.



    Now,



    $$P(a<d) = int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



    Explanation of this equality. $a$ and $d$ are independent and continuous random variables with cumulative distributions $F_a(x)$ and $F_d(x)$.



    So, we can write:



    $$P(a > b + c) = P(a > d) = 1 - P(a < d) = 1 - int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



    $F'_d(x)=0$ for $xin(-infty,0)cup[2, infty)$. Thus, integral is non-zero only between two intervals:





    1. $x in [0,1). lfloor xrfloor = 0.$



      $$F_a(x) = x$$
      $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{0}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2$$
      $$F_d'(x) = x$$




    2. $x in [1,2). lfloor xrfloor = 1.$



      $$F_a(x) = 1$$
      $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{1}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2 - frac{1}{2}cdot2(x-1)^2 =-frac{1}{2}x^2+2x-1$$
      $$F_d'(x) = -x+2$$




    Therefore:



    $$P(a > b + c) = 1 - int_{0}^{1}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx - int_{1}^{2}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx =$$
    $$1 - int_{0}^{1}x, x,dx - int_{1}^{2}1cdot(-x+2),dx = 1 - frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{2} = frac{1}{6}.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$





















      3












      $begingroup$

      Let's pose that the bounded interval of $mathbb{R}$ is $I = [0, 1]$.
      Fixed $b$ and $c$, we have to find out the conditional probability that $a > b+c$. Namely:
      $$int_{max(b+c, 1)}^1 f_a(a) da = 1 - max(b+c, 1)$$
      Then, we have to integrate with respect to $b$ and $c$:
      $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1 left( 1 - max(b+c, 1) right) f_b(b)f_c(c) db ~dc = 1 - int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc$$



      Let's consider $max(b+c, 1)$. It is equal to $b+c$ when $b < 1 - c$, and $1$ elsewhere. Then:
      $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc = int_{0}^1left[int_{0}^{1-c}(b+c)db + int_{1-c}^1 1 cdot dbright]dc = $$
      $$=int_{0}^1left[frac{(1-c)^2}{2} + c(1-c) + cright]dc = frac{5}{6}$$



      Finally, the probabilty you are looking for is
      $$1 - frac{5}{6} = frac{1}{6}$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$





















        1












        $begingroup$

        Others have provided graphical, manual integration and distribution theory approaches ---> so here's an automated computer algebra system approach, as a one-liner:





        Easy and simple ... calculated here using the mathStatica add-on to Mathematica (I am one of the authors of the former); presumably Maple or other computer algebra packages could handle it too (I am not an author of those packages).






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        • 5




          $begingroup$
          You might want to continue to mention I should add that I am one of the authors of mathStatica (or a similar formulation) when posting answers based on this software (in three recent answers, you forgot to do so).
          $endgroup$
          – Did
          Oct 14 '13 at 12:24










        • $begingroup$
          Wouldn't that be boasting?
          $endgroup$
          – wolfies
          Oct 14 '13 at 13:05










        • $begingroup$
          Are you going to add the mention to this answer and to the others, or not?
          $endgroup$
          – Did
          Oct 14 '13 at 17:03






        • 2




          $begingroup$
          @wolfies: it doesn't seem like boasting. There is a difference between an impartial endorsement and a paid endorsement. Granted, this is somewhere in-between, but if you don't say something, it looks like an impartial endorsement, which it really is not.
          $endgroup$
          – robjohn
          Oct 14 '13 at 21:16










        • $begingroup$
          @robjohn No problem.
          $endgroup$
          – wolfies
          Oct 15 '13 at 3:55













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        4 Answers
        4






        active

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        4 Answers
        4






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        active

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        9












        $begingroup$

        abc probability



        Probability as the volume of a pyramid $V = frac{1}{3}Sh = frac{1}{3}cdotfrac{1}{2}cdot1 = frac{1}{6}.$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$


















          9












          $begingroup$

          abc probability



          Probability as the volume of a pyramid $V = frac{1}{3}Sh = frac{1}{3}cdotfrac{1}{2}cdot1 = frac{1}{6}.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$
















            9












            9








            9





            $begingroup$

            abc probability



            Probability as the volume of a pyramid $V = frac{1}{3}Sh = frac{1}{3}cdotfrac{1}{2}cdot1 = frac{1}{6}.$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            abc probability



            Probability as the volume of a pyramid $V = frac{1}{3}Sh = frac{1}{3}cdotfrac{1}{2}cdot1 = frac{1}{6}.$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Oct 14 '13 at 11:54









            Adam Stelmaszczyk

            506425




            506425










            answered Oct 14 '13 at 10:52









            Kamil CzerskiKamil Czerski

            20612




            20612























                4












                $begingroup$

                Let $d = b + c$.



                $d$ has the Irwin-Hall distribution with $n=2$ independent variables.



                Its CDF is equal to $F_d(x)=frac{1}{n!}sum_{k=0}^{lfloor xrfloor}(-1)^kbinom{n}{k}(x-k)^n$.



                Now,



                $$P(a<d) = int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



                Explanation of this equality. $a$ and $d$ are independent and continuous random variables with cumulative distributions $F_a(x)$ and $F_d(x)$.



                So, we can write:



                $$P(a > b + c) = P(a > d) = 1 - P(a < d) = 1 - int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



                $F'_d(x)=0$ for $xin(-infty,0)cup[2, infty)$. Thus, integral is non-zero only between two intervals:





                1. $x in [0,1). lfloor xrfloor = 0.$



                  $$F_a(x) = x$$
                  $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{0}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2$$
                  $$F_d'(x) = x$$




                2. $x in [1,2). lfloor xrfloor = 1.$



                  $$F_a(x) = 1$$
                  $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{1}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2 - frac{1}{2}cdot2(x-1)^2 =-frac{1}{2}x^2+2x-1$$
                  $$F_d'(x) = -x+2$$




                Therefore:



                $$P(a > b + c) = 1 - int_{0}^{1}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx - int_{1}^{2}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx =$$
                $$1 - int_{0}^{1}x, x,dx - int_{1}^{2}1cdot(-x+2),dx = 1 - frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{2} = frac{1}{6}.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$


















                  4












                  $begingroup$

                  Let $d = b + c$.



                  $d$ has the Irwin-Hall distribution with $n=2$ independent variables.



                  Its CDF is equal to $F_d(x)=frac{1}{n!}sum_{k=0}^{lfloor xrfloor}(-1)^kbinom{n}{k}(x-k)^n$.



                  Now,



                  $$P(a<d) = int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



                  Explanation of this equality. $a$ and $d$ are independent and continuous random variables with cumulative distributions $F_a(x)$ and $F_d(x)$.



                  So, we can write:



                  $$P(a > b + c) = P(a > d) = 1 - P(a < d) = 1 - int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



                  $F'_d(x)=0$ for $xin(-infty,0)cup[2, infty)$. Thus, integral is non-zero only between two intervals:





                  1. $x in [0,1). lfloor xrfloor = 0.$



                    $$F_a(x) = x$$
                    $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{0}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2$$
                    $$F_d'(x) = x$$




                  2. $x in [1,2). lfloor xrfloor = 1.$



                    $$F_a(x) = 1$$
                    $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{1}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2 - frac{1}{2}cdot2(x-1)^2 =-frac{1}{2}x^2+2x-1$$
                    $$F_d'(x) = -x+2$$




                  Therefore:



                  $$P(a > b + c) = 1 - int_{0}^{1}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx - int_{1}^{2}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx =$$
                  $$1 - int_{0}^{1}x, x,dx - int_{1}^{2}1cdot(-x+2),dx = 1 - frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{2} = frac{1}{6}.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$
















                    4












                    4








                    4





                    $begingroup$

                    Let $d = b + c$.



                    $d$ has the Irwin-Hall distribution with $n=2$ independent variables.



                    Its CDF is equal to $F_d(x)=frac{1}{n!}sum_{k=0}^{lfloor xrfloor}(-1)^kbinom{n}{k}(x-k)^n$.



                    Now,



                    $$P(a<d) = int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



                    Explanation of this equality. $a$ and $d$ are independent and continuous random variables with cumulative distributions $F_a(x)$ and $F_d(x)$.



                    So, we can write:



                    $$P(a > b + c) = P(a > d) = 1 - P(a < d) = 1 - int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



                    $F'_d(x)=0$ for $xin(-infty,0)cup[2, infty)$. Thus, integral is non-zero only between two intervals:





                    1. $x in [0,1). lfloor xrfloor = 0.$



                      $$F_a(x) = x$$
                      $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{0}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2$$
                      $$F_d'(x) = x$$




                    2. $x in [1,2). lfloor xrfloor = 1.$



                      $$F_a(x) = 1$$
                      $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{1}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2 - frac{1}{2}cdot2(x-1)^2 =-frac{1}{2}x^2+2x-1$$
                      $$F_d'(x) = -x+2$$




                    Therefore:



                    $$P(a > b + c) = 1 - int_{0}^{1}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx - int_{1}^{2}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx =$$
                    $$1 - int_{0}^{1}x, x,dx - int_{1}^{2}1cdot(-x+2),dx = 1 - frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{2} = frac{1}{6}.$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    Let $d = b + c$.



                    $d$ has the Irwin-Hall distribution with $n=2$ independent variables.



                    Its CDF is equal to $F_d(x)=frac{1}{n!}sum_{k=0}^{lfloor xrfloor}(-1)^kbinom{n}{k}(x-k)^n$.



                    Now,



                    $$P(a<d) = int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



                    Explanation of this equality. $a$ and $d$ are independent and continuous random variables with cumulative distributions $F_a(x)$ and $F_d(x)$.



                    So, we can write:



                    $$P(a > b + c) = P(a > d) = 1 - P(a < d) = 1 - int_{-infty}^{infty} F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx.$$



                    $F'_d(x)=0$ for $xin(-infty,0)cup[2, infty)$. Thus, integral is non-zero only between two intervals:





                    1. $x in [0,1). lfloor xrfloor = 0.$



                      $$F_a(x) = x$$
                      $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{0}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2$$
                      $$F_d'(x) = x$$




                    2. $x in [1,2). lfloor xrfloor = 1.$



                      $$F_a(x) = 1$$
                      $$F_d(x) = frac{1}{2}sum_{k=0}^{1}(-1)^kbinom{2}{k}(x-k)^2 = frac{1}{2}x^2 - frac{1}{2}cdot2(x-1)^2 =-frac{1}{2}x^2+2x-1$$
                      $$F_d'(x) = -x+2$$




                    Therefore:



                    $$P(a > b + c) = 1 - int_{0}^{1}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx - int_{1}^{2}F_a(x), F'_d(x),dx =$$
                    $$1 - int_{0}^{1}x, x,dx - int_{1}^{2}1cdot(-x+2),dx = 1 - frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{2} = frac{1}{6}.$$







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20









                    Community

                    1




                    1










                    answered Oct 14 '13 at 11:40









                    Adam StelmaszczykAdam Stelmaszczyk

                    506425




                    506425























                        3












                        $begingroup$

                        Let's pose that the bounded interval of $mathbb{R}$ is $I = [0, 1]$.
                        Fixed $b$ and $c$, we have to find out the conditional probability that $a > b+c$. Namely:
                        $$int_{max(b+c, 1)}^1 f_a(a) da = 1 - max(b+c, 1)$$
                        Then, we have to integrate with respect to $b$ and $c$:
                        $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1 left( 1 - max(b+c, 1) right) f_b(b)f_c(c) db ~dc = 1 - int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc$$



                        Let's consider $max(b+c, 1)$. It is equal to $b+c$ when $b < 1 - c$, and $1$ elsewhere. Then:
                        $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc = int_{0}^1left[int_{0}^{1-c}(b+c)db + int_{1-c}^1 1 cdot dbright]dc = $$
                        $$=int_{0}^1left[frac{(1-c)^2}{2} + c(1-c) + cright]dc = frac{5}{6}$$



                        Finally, the probabilty you are looking for is
                        $$1 - frac{5}{6} = frac{1}{6}$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$


















                          3












                          $begingroup$

                          Let's pose that the bounded interval of $mathbb{R}$ is $I = [0, 1]$.
                          Fixed $b$ and $c$, we have to find out the conditional probability that $a > b+c$. Namely:
                          $$int_{max(b+c, 1)}^1 f_a(a) da = 1 - max(b+c, 1)$$
                          Then, we have to integrate with respect to $b$ and $c$:
                          $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1 left( 1 - max(b+c, 1) right) f_b(b)f_c(c) db ~dc = 1 - int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc$$



                          Let's consider $max(b+c, 1)$. It is equal to $b+c$ when $b < 1 - c$, and $1$ elsewhere. Then:
                          $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc = int_{0}^1left[int_{0}^{1-c}(b+c)db + int_{1-c}^1 1 cdot dbright]dc = $$
                          $$=int_{0}^1left[frac{(1-c)^2}{2} + c(1-c) + cright]dc = frac{5}{6}$$



                          Finally, the probabilty you are looking for is
                          $$1 - frac{5}{6} = frac{1}{6}$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$
















                            3












                            3








                            3





                            $begingroup$

                            Let's pose that the bounded interval of $mathbb{R}$ is $I = [0, 1]$.
                            Fixed $b$ and $c$, we have to find out the conditional probability that $a > b+c$. Namely:
                            $$int_{max(b+c, 1)}^1 f_a(a) da = 1 - max(b+c, 1)$$
                            Then, we have to integrate with respect to $b$ and $c$:
                            $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1 left( 1 - max(b+c, 1) right) f_b(b)f_c(c) db ~dc = 1 - int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc$$



                            Let's consider $max(b+c, 1)$. It is equal to $b+c$ when $b < 1 - c$, and $1$ elsewhere. Then:
                            $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc = int_{0}^1left[int_{0}^{1-c}(b+c)db + int_{1-c}^1 1 cdot dbright]dc = $$
                            $$=int_{0}^1left[frac{(1-c)^2}{2} + c(1-c) + cright]dc = frac{5}{6}$$



                            Finally, the probabilty you are looking for is
                            $$1 - frac{5}{6} = frac{1}{6}$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            Let's pose that the bounded interval of $mathbb{R}$ is $I = [0, 1]$.
                            Fixed $b$ and $c$, we have to find out the conditional probability that $a > b+c$. Namely:
                            $$int_{max(b+c, 1)}^1 f_a(a) da = 1 - max(b+c, 1)$$
                            Then, we have to integrate with respect to $b$ and $c$:
                            $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1 left( 1 - max(b+c, 1) right) f_b(b)f_c(c) db ~dc = 1 - int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc$$



                            Let's consider $max(b+c, 1)$. It is equal to $b+c$ when $b < 1 - c$, and $1$ elsewhere. Then:
                            $$int_{0}^1int_{0}^1max(b+c, 1)db~dc = int_{0}^1left[int_{0}^{1-c}(b+c)db + int_{1-c}^1 1 cdot dbright]dc = $$
                            $$=int_{0}^1left[frac{(1-c)^2}{2} + c(1-c) + cright]dc = frac{5}{6}$$



                            Finally, the probabilty you are looking for is
                            $$1 - frac{5}{6} = frac{1}{6}$$







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Oct 14 '13 at 11:00

























                            answered Oct 14 '13 at 9:30









                            the_candymanthe_candyman

                            8,97832145




                            8,97832145























                                1












                                $begingroup$

                                Others have provided graphical, manual integration and distribution theory approaches ---> so here's an automated computer algebra system approach, as a one-liner:





                                Easy and simple ... calculated here using the mathStatica add-on to Mathematica (I am one of the authors of the former); presumably Maple or other computer algebra packages could handle it too (I am not an author of those packages).






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$









                                • 5




                                  $begingroup$
                                  You might want to continue to mention I should add that I am one of the authors of mathStatica (or a similar formulation) when posting answers based on this software (in three recent answers, you forgot to do so).
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 12:24










                                • $begingroup$
                                  Wouldn't that be boasting?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – wolfies
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 13:05










                                • $begingroup$
                                  Are you going to add the mention to this answer and to the others, or not?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 17:03






                                • 2




                                  $begingroup$
                                  @wolfies: it doesn't seem like boasting. There is a difference between an impartial endorsement and a paid endorsement. Granted, this is somewhere in-between, but if you don't say something, it looks like an impartial endorsement, which it really is not.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – robjohn
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 21:16










                                • $begingroup$
                                  @robjohn No problem.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – wolfies
                                  Oct 15 '13 at 3:55


















                                1












                                $begingroup$

                                Others have provided graphical, manual integration and distribution theory approaches ---> so here's an automated computer algebra system approach, as a one-liner:





                                Easy and simple ... calculated here using the mathStatica add-on to Mathematica (I am one of the authors of the former); presumably Maple or other computer algebra packages could handle it too (I am not an author of those packages).






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$









                                • 5




                                  $begingroup$
                                  You might want to continue to mention I should add that I am one of the authors of mathStatica (or a similar formulation) when posting answers based on this software (in three recent answers, you forgot to do so).
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 12:24










                                • $begingroup$
                                  Wouldn't that be boasting?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – wolfies
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 13:05










                                • $begingroup$
                                  Are you going to add the mention to this answer and to the others, or not?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 17:03






                                • 2




                                  $begingroup$
                                  @wolfies: it doesn't seem like boasting. There is a difference between an impartial endorsement and a paid endorsement. Granted, this is somewhere in-between, but if you don't say something, it looks like an impartial endorsement, which it really is not.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – robjohn
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 21:16










                                • $begingroup$
                                  @robjohn No problem.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – wolfies
                                  Oct 15 '13 at 3:55
















                                1












                                1








                                1





                                $begingroup$

                                Others have provided graphical, manual integration and distribution theory approaches ---> so here's an automated computer algebra system approach, as a one-liner:





                                Easy and simple ... calculated here using the mathStatica add-on to Mathematica (I am one of the authors of the former); presumably Maple or other computer algebra packages could handle it too (I am not an author of those packages).






                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                $endgroup$



                                Others have provided graphical, manual integration and distribution theory approaches ---> so here's an automated computer algebra system approach, as a one-liner:





                                Easy and simple ... calculated here using the mathStatica add-on to Mathematica (I am one of the authors of the former); presumably Maple or other computer algebra packages could handle it too (I am not an author of those packages).







                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer








                                edited Jan 23 at 20:24









                                Glorfindel

                                3,42981830




                                3,42981830










                                answered Oct 14 '13 at 11:59









                                wolfieswolfies

                                4,2392923




                                4,2392923








                                • 5




                                  $begingroup$
                                  You might want to continue to mention I should add that I am one of the authors of mathStatica (or a similar formulation) when posting answers based on this software (in three recent answers, you forgot to do so).
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 12:24










                                • $begingroup$
                                  Wouldn't that be boasting?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – wolfies
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 13:05










                                • $begingroup$
                                  Are you going to add the mention to this answer and to the others, or not?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 17:03






                                • 2




                                  $begingroup$
                                  @wolfies: it doesn't seem like boasting. There is a difference between an impartial endorsement and a paid endorsement. Granted, this is somewhere in-between, but if you don't say something, it looks like an impartial endorsement, which it really is not.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – robjohn
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 21:16










                                • $begingroup$
                                  @robjohn No problem.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – wolfies
                                  Oct 15 '13 at 3:55
















                                • 5




                                  $begingroup$
                                  You might want to continue to mention I should add that I am one of the authors of mathStatica (or a similar formulation) when posting answers based on this software (in three recent answers, you forgot to do so).
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 12:24










                                • $begingroup$
                                  Wouldn't that be boasting?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – wolfies
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 13:05










                                • $begingroup$
                                  Are you going to add the mention to this answer and to the others, or not?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 17:03






                                • 2




                                  $begingroup$
                                  @wolfies: it doesn't seem like boasting. There is a difference between an impartial endorsement and a paid endorsement. Granted, this is somewhere in-between, but if you don't say something, it looks like an impartial endorsement, which it really is not.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – robjohn
                                  Oct 14 '13 at 21:16










                                • $begingroup$
                                  @robjohn No problem.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – wolfies
                                  Oct 15 '13 at 3:55










                                5




                                5




                                $begingroup$
                                You might want to continue to mention I should add that I am one of the authors of mathStatica (or a similar formulation) when posting answers based on this software (in three recent answers, you forgot to do so).
                                $endgroup$
                                – Did
                                Oct 14 '13 at 12:24




                                $begingroup$
                                You might want to continue to mention I should add that I am one of the authors of mathStatica (or a similar formulation) when posting answers based on this software (in three recent answers, you forgot to do so).
                                $endgroup$
                                – Did
                                Oct 14 '13 at 12:24












                                $begingroup$
                                Wouldn't that be boasting?
                                $endgroup$
                                – wolfies
                                Oct 14 '13 at 13:05




                                $begingroup$
                                Wouldn't that be boasting?
                                $endgroup$
                                – wolfies
                                Oct 14 '13 at 13:05












                                $begingroup$
                                Are you going to add the mention to this answer and to the others, or not?
                                $endgroup$
                                – Did
                                Oct 14 '13 at 17:03




                                $begingroup$
                                Are you going to add the mention to this answer and to the others, or not?
                                $endgroup$
                                – Did
                                Oct 14 '13 at 17:03




                                2




                                2




                                $begingroup$
                                @wolfies: it doesn't seem like boasting. There is a difference between an impartial endorsement and a paid endorsement. Granted, this is somewhere in-between, but if you don't say something, it looks like an impartial endorsement, which it really is not.
                                $endgroup$
                                – robjohn
                                Oct 14 '13 at 21:16




                                $begingroup$
                                @wolfies: it doesn't seem like boasting. There is a difference between an impartial endorsement and a paid endorsement. Granted, this is somewhere in-between, but if you don't say something, it looks like an impartial endorsement, which it really is not.
                                $endgroup$
                                – robjohn
                                Oct 14 '13 at 21:16












                                $begingroup$
                                @robjohn No problem.
                                $endgroup$
                                – wolfies
                                Oct 15 '13 at 3:55






                                $begingroup$
                                @robjohn No problem.
                                $endgroup$
                                – wolfies
                                Oct 15 '13 at 3:55




















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