How do you calculate a probability given multiple probabilities?












0












$begingroup$


Assume that the following are the probabilities (P(S)) of runner's chance of finishing a race within S minutes



S 4 6 8 9 10

P(S) .10 .40 .20 .15 .15



If there are 50 runners, what is the probability that none will take more than 7 minutes?



What kind of problem is this and how do I approach it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Splitting the possible outcomes into two groups (up to 7 minutes and less than 7 minutes) makes this a binomial distribution problem. The sections called "Specification" and "Example" on the Wikipedia entry will give you an overview. If you're not familiar with the factorial of a number ($n! = ncdot(n-1)cdot(n-2)cdotdotscdot(2)cdot(1)$), you're basically just multiplying a bunch of numbers together. The result can get pretty big pretty fast, but otherwise the calculation shouldn't get too hairy.
    $endgroup$
    – dmk
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:37


















0












$begingroup$


Assume that the following are the probabilities (P(S)) of runner's chance of finishing a race within S minutes



S 4 6 8 9 10

P(S) .10 .40 .20 .15 .15



If there are 50 runners, what is the probability that none will take more than 7 minutes?



What kind of problem is this and how do I approach it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Splitting the possible outcomes into two groups (up to 7 minutes and less than 7 minutes) makes this a binomial distribution problem. The sections called "Specification" and "Example" on the Wikipedia entry will give you an overview. If you're not familiar with the factorial of a number ($n! = ncdot(n-1)cdot(n-2)cdotdotscdot(2)cdot(1)$), you're basically just multiplying a bunch of numbers together. The result can get pretty big pretty fast, but otherwise the calculation shouldn't get too hairy.
    $endgroup$
    – dmk
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:37
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Assume that the following are the probabilities (P(S)) of runner's chance of finishing a race within S minutes



S 4 6 8 9 10

P(S) .10 .40 .20 .15 .15



If there are 50 runners, what is the probability that none will take more than 7 minutes?



What kind of problem is this and how do I approach it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Assume that the following are the probabilities (P(S)) of runner's chance of finishing a race within S minutes



S 4 6 8 9 10

P(S) .10 .40 .20 .15 .15



If there are 50 runners, what is the probability that none will take more than 7 minutes?



What kind of problem is this and how do I approach it?







probability






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Feb 6 '14 at 2:37







user940

















asked Feb 6 '14 at 1:40









user3277633user3277633

1278




1278












  • $begingroup$
    Splitting the possible outcomes into two groups (up to 7 minutes and less than 7 minutes) makes this a binomial distribution problem. The sections called "Specification" and "Example" on the Wikipedia entry will give you an overview. If you're not familiar with the factorial of a number ($n! = ncdot(n-1)cdot(n-2)cdotdotscdot(2)cdot(1)$), you're basically just multiplying a bunch of numbers together. The result can get pretty big pretty fast, but otherwise the calculation shouldn't get too hairy.
    $endgroup$
    – dmk
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:37




















  • $begingroup$
    Splitting the possible outcomes into two groups (up to 7 minutes and less than 7 minutes) makes this a binomial distribution problem. The sections called "Specification" and "Example" on the Wikipedia entry will give you an overview. If you're not familiar with the factorial of a number ($n! = ncdot(n-1)cdot(n-2)cdotdotscdot(2)cdot(1)$), you're basically just multiplying a bunch of numbers together. The result can get pretty big pretty fast, but otherwise the calculation shouldn't get too hairy.
    $endgroup$
    – dmk
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:37


















$begingroup$
Splitting the possible outcomes into two groups (up to 7 minutes and less than 7 minutes) makes this a binomial distribution problem. The sections called "Specification" and "Example" on the Wikipedia entry will give you an overview. If you're not familiar with the factorial of a number ($n! = ncdot(n-1)cdot(n-2)cdotdotscdot(2)cdot(1)$), you're basically just multiplying a bunch of numbers together. The result can get pretty big pretty fast, but otherwise the calculation shouldn't get too hairy.
$endgroup$
– dmk
Feb 6 '14 at 3:37






$begingroup$
Splitting the possible outcomes into two groups (up to 7 minutes and less than 7 minutes) makes this a binomial distribution problem. The sections called "Specification" and "Example" on the Wikipedia entry will give you an overview. If you're not familiar with the factorial of a number ($n! = ncdot(n-1)cdot(n-2)cdotdotscdot(2)cdot(1)$), you're basically just multiplying a bunch of numbers together. The result can get pretty big pretty fast, but otherwise the calculation shouldn't get too hairy.
$endgroup$
– dmk
Feb 6 '14 at 3:37












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

First you identify the probability of one person finishing in less tha 7 minutes which would be if the finish in 4 or 6 minutes, the probability of this is .5



P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5



Now this is only for one person, so the next person would have also the same probability, so for both of them to finish in less than 7 minutes would be (.5)(.5) = .25 and so on



so for the fifty runners to finish in less than 7 mins it would be



(.5)^50 = 0.00000000000000088817842



Which means it's pretty unlikely that it happens



To better understand how unlikely it is, is like throwing a coin 50 times in a row and have the same result every time






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    how would i change the formula if I just want to find what's the prob of exactly one runner who ran under 7 minute?
    $endgroup$
    – user3277633
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:09










  • $begingroup$
    The prob of one runner who ran under 7 mins is the first we calculated:"P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5"
    $endgroup$
    – Mark E
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:17












  • $begingroup$
    But some runners may finish in less than 7 minutes and be in the $6 < t < 8$ group...
    $endgroup$
    – Richard Ambler
    Jan 25 at 4:31



















0












$begingroup$

I think that the original problem is not worded very carefully. For example, if a runner makes it within 4 minutes then they also make it within 10 minutes, right?



It might be clearer to express the given information in terms of the running time for an individual runner $t$ as:



$$begin{align}
P(t<0)&=0\
P(0<t<4)&=0.10\
P(4 < t < 6)&=0.40\
P(6 < t < 8)&=0.20\
P(8 < t < 9)&=0.15\
P(9 < t < 10)&=0.15\
P(t>10)&=0
end{align}$$



(With $t$ a continuous variable so $P(t=k)=0$ for any $k$ in the domain.)



Unfortunately, if we're interested in finding $P(t<7)$, we're going to have to make an assumption about how the probability is distributed in the $6<t<8$ region of the domain in order to make an educated guess.



For example, we might simply assume $P(6<t<7)=P(7<t<8)=0.10$. In this case, $P(t<7)=0.10+0.40+0.10=0.60$.



Now that we have the probability that a single runner will make it in under 7 minutes we can move on to the problem that all of 50 runners will make it under 7 minutes.



As mentioned in a previous answer, the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes (assuming independence, etc.) would be modeled using the binomial distribution:



$$Xsimtext B(50, 0.60)Rightarrow P(X=x)={50choose x}(0.60)^x(0.40)^{50-x}$$



where $X$ represents the number of runners who make it in under 7 minutes where the probability that any runner will make it in under 7 minutes is $0.60$.



For $x=50$ (the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes is all 50), this gives us:



$$P(X=50)=(0.60)^{50}=8.1times 10^{-12}$$



(which is pretty darn close to impossible).






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    0












    $begingroup$

    First you identify the probability of one person finishing in less tha 7 minutes which would be if the finish in 4 or 6 minutes, the probability of this is .5



    P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5



    Now this is only for one person, so the next person would have also the same probability, so for both of them to finish in less than 7 minutes would be (.5)(.5) = .25 and so on



    so for the fifty runners to finish in less than 7 mins it would be



    (.5)^50 = 0.00000000000000088817842



    Which means it's pretty unlikely that it happens



    To better understand how unlikely it is, is like throwing a coin 50 times in a row and have the same result every time






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      how would i change the formula if I just want to find what's the prob of exactly one runner who ran under 7 minute?
      $endgroup$
      – user3277633
      Feb 6 '14 at 3:09










    • $begingroup$
      The prob of one runner who ran under 7 mins is the first we calculated:"P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5"
      $endgroup$
      – Mark E
      Feb 6 '14 at 3:17












    • $begingroup$
      But some runners may finish in less than 7 minutes and be in the $6 < t < 8$ group...
      $endgroup$
      – Richard Ambler
      Jan 25 at 4:31
















    0












    $begingroup$

    First you identify the probability of one person finishing in less tha 7 minutes which would be if the finish in 4 or 6 minutes, the probability of this is .5



    P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5



    Now this is only for one person, so the next person would have also the same probability, so for both of them to finish in less than 7 minutes would be (.5)(.5) = .25 and so on



    so for the fifty runners to finish in less than 7 mins it would be



    (.5)^50 = 0.00000000000000088817842



    Which means it's pretty unlikely that it happens



    To better understand how unlikely it is, is like throwing a coin 50 times in a row and have the same result every time






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      how would i change the formula if I just want to find what's the prob of exactly one runner who ran under 7 minute?
      $endgroup$
      – user3277633
      Feb 6 '14 at 3:09










    • $begingroup$
      The prob of one runner who ran under 7 mins is the first we calculated:"P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5"
      $endgroup$
      – Mark E
      Feb 6 '14 at 3:17












    • $begingroup$
      But some runners may finish in less than 7 minutes and be in the $6 < t < 8$ group...
      $endgroup$
      – Richard Ambler
      Jan 25 at 4:31














    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    First you identify the probability of one person finishing in less tha 7 minutes which would be if the finish in 4 or 6 minutes, the probability of this is .5



    P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5



    Now this is only for one person, so the next person would have also the same probability, so for both of them to finish in less than 7 minutes would be (.5)(.5) = .25 and so on



    so for the fifty runners to finish in less than 7 mins it would be



    (.5)^50 = 0.00000000000000088817842



    Which means it's pretty unlikely that it happens



    To better understand how unlikely it is, is like throwing a coin 50 times in a row and have the same result every time






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    First you identify the probability of one person finishing in less tha 7 minutes which would be if the finish in 4 or 6 minutes, the probability of this is .5



    P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5



    Now this is only for one person, so the next person would have also the same probability, so for both of them to finish in less than 7 minutes would be (.5)(.5) = .25 and so on



    so for the fifty runners to finish in less than 7 mins it would be



    (.5)^50 = 0.00000000000000088817842



    Which means it's pretty unlikely that it happens



    To better understand how unlikely it is, is like throwing a coin 50 times in a row and have the same result every time







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Feb 6 '14 at 1:54









    Mark EMark E

    11016




    11016












    • $begingroup$
      how would i change the formula if I just want to find what's the prob of exactly one runner who ran under 7 minute?
      $endgroup$
      – user3277633
      Feb 6 '14 at 3:09










    • $begingroup$
      The prob of one runner who ran under 7 mins is the first we calculated:"P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5"
      $endgroup$
      – Mark E
      Feb 6 '14 at 3:17












    • $begingroup$
      But some runners may finish in less than 7 minutes and be in the $6 < t < 8$ group...
      $endgroup$
      – Richard Ambler
      Jan 25 at 4:31


















    • $begingroup$
      how would i change the formula if I just want to find what's the prob of exactly one runner who ran under 7 minute?
      $endgroup$
      – user3277633
      Feb 6 '14 at 3:09










    • $begingroup$
      The prob of one runner who ran under 7 mins is the first we calculated:"P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5"
      $endgroup$
      – Mark E
      Feb 6 '14 at 3:17












    • $begingroup$
      But some runners may finish in less than 7 minutes and be in the $6 < t < 8$ group...
      $endgroup$
      – Richard Ambler
      Jan 25 at 4:31
















    $begingroup$
    how would i change the formula if I just want to find what's the prob of exactly one runner who ran under 7 minute?
    $endgroup$
    – user3277633
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:09




    $begingroup$
    how would i change the formula if I just want to find what's the prob of exactly one runner who ran under 7 minute?
    $endgroup$
    – user3277633
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:09












    $begingroup$
    The prob of one runner who ran under 7 mins is the first we calculated:"P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5"
    $endgroup$
    – Mark E
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:17






    $begingroup$
    The prob of one runner who ran under 7 mins is the first we calculated:"P(S<7) = P(4)+P(6) = 0.5"
    $endgroup$
    – Mark E
    Feb 6 '14 at 3:17














    $begingroup$
    But some runners may finish in less than 7 minutes and be in the $6 < t < 8$ group...
    $endgroup$
    – Richard Ambler
    Jan 25 at 4:31




    $begingroup$
    But some runners may finish in less than 7 minutes and be in the $6 < t < 8$ group...
    $endgroup$
    – Richard Ambler
    Jan 25 at 4:31











    0












    $begingroup$

    I think that the original problem is not worded very carefully. For example, if a runner makes it within 4 minutes then they also make it within 10 minutes, right?



    It might be clearer to express the given information in terms of the running time for an individual runner $t$ as:



    $$begin{align}
    P(t<0)&=0\
    P(0<t<4)&=0.10\
    P(4 < t < 6)&=0.40\
    P(6 < t < 8)&=0.20\
    P(8 < t < 9)&=0.15\
    P(9 < t < 10)&=0.15\
    P(t>10)&=0
    end{align}$$



    (With $t$ a continuous variable so $P(t=k)=0$ for any $k$ in the domain.)



    Unfortunately, if we're interested in finding $P(t<7)$, we're going to have to make an assumption about how the probability is distributed in the $6<t<8$ region of the domain in order to make an educated guess.



    For example, we might simply assume $P(6<t<7)=P(7<t<8)=0.10$. In this case, $P(t<7)=0.10+0.40+0.10=0.60$.



    Now that we have the probability that a single runner will make it in under 7 minutes we can move on to the problem that all of 50 runners will make it under 7 minutes.



    As mentioned in a previous answer, the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes (assuming independence, etc.) would be modeled using the binomial distribution:



    $$Xsimtext B(50, 0.60)Rightarrow P(X=x)={50choose x}(0.60)^x(0.40)^{50-x}$$



    where $X$ represents the number of runners who make it in under 7 minutes where the probability that any runner will make it in under 7 minutes is $0.60$.



    For $x=50$ (the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes is all 50), this gives us:



    $$P(X=50)=(0.60)^{50}=8.1times 10^{-12}$$



    (which is pretty darn close to impossible).






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      I think that the original problem is not worded very carefully. For example, if a runner makes it within 4 minutes then they also make it within 10 minutes, right?



      It might be clearer to express the given information in terms of the running time for an individual runner $t$ as:



      $$begin{align}
      P(t<0)&=0\
      P(0<t<4)&=0.10\
      P(4 < t < 6)&=0.40\
      P(6 < t < 8)&=0.20\
      P(8 < t < 9)&=0.15\
      P(9 < t < 10)&=0.15\
      P(t>10)&=0
      end{align}$$



      (With $t$ a continuous variable so $P(t=k)=0$ for any $k$ in the domain.)



      Unfortunately, if we're interested in finding $P(t<7)$, we're going to have to make an assumption about how the probability is distributed in the $6<t<8$ region of the domain in order to make an educated guess.



      For example, we might simply assume $P(6<t<7)=P(7<t<8)=0.10$. In this case, $P(t<7)=0.10+0.40+0.10=0.60$.



      Now that we have the probability that a single runner will make it in under 7 minutes we can move on to the problem that all of 50 runners will make it under 7 minutes.



      As mentioned in a previous answer, the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes (assuming independence, etc.) would be modeled using the binomial distribution:



      $$Xsimtext B(50, 0.60)Rightarrow P(X=x)={50choose x}(0.60)^x(0.40)^{50-x}$$



      where $X$ represents the number of runners who make it in under 7 minutes where the probability that any runner will make it in under 7 minutes is $0.60$.



      For $x=50$ (the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes is all 50), this gives us:



      $$P(X=50)=(0.60)^{50}=8.1times 10^{-12}$$



      (which is pretty darn close to impossible).






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        I think that the original problem is not worded very carefully. For example, if a runner makes it within 4 minutes then they also make it within 10 minutes, right?



        It might be clearer to express the given information in terms of the running time for an individual runner $t$ as:



        $$begin{align}
        P(t<0)&=0\
        P(0<t<4)&=0.10\
        P(4 < t < 6)&=0.40\
        P(6 < t < 8)&=0.20\
        P(8 < t < 9)&=0.15\
        P(9 < t < 10)&=0.15\
        P(t>10)&=0
        end{align}$$



        (With $t$ a continuous variable so $P(t=k)=0$ for any $k$ in the domain.)



        Unfortunately, if we're interested in finding $P(t<7)$, we're going to have to make an assumption about how the probability is distributed in the $6<t<8$ region of the domain in order to make an educated guess.



        For example, we might simply assume $P(6<t<7)=P(7<t<8)=0.10$. In this case, $P(t<7)=0.10+0.40+0.10=0.60$.



        Now that we have the probability that a single runner will make it in under 7 minutes we can move on to the problem that all of 50 runners will make it under 7 minutes.



        As mentioned in a previous answer, the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes (assuming independence, etc.) would be modeled using the binomial distribution:



        $$Xsimtext B(50, 0.60)Rightarrow P(X=x)={50choose x}(0.60)^x(0.40)^{50-x}$$



        where $X$ represents the number of runners who make it in under 7 minutes where the probability that any runner will make it in under 7 minutes is $0.60$.



        For $x=50$ (the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes is all 50), this gives us:



        $$P(X=50)=(0.60)^{50}=8.1times 10^{-12}$$



        (which is pretty darn close to impossible).






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I think that the original problem is not worded very carefully. For example, if a runner makes it within 4 minutes then they also make it within 10 minutes, right?



        It might be clearer to express the given information in terms of the running time for an individual runner $t$ as:



        $$begin{align}
        P(t<0)&=0\
        P(0<t<4)&=0.10\
        P(4 < t < 6)&=0.40\
        P(6 < t < 8)&=0.20\
        P(8 < t < 9)&=0.15\
        P(9 < t < 10)&=0.15\
        P(t>10)&=0
        end{align}$$



        (With $t$ a continuous variable so $P(t=k)=0$ for any $k$ in the domain.)



        Unfortunately, if we're interested in finding $P(t<7)$, we're going to have to make an assumption about how the probability is distributed in the $6<t<8$ region of the domain in order to make an educated guess.



        For example, we might simply assume $P(6<t<7)=P(7<t<8)=0.10$. In this case, $P(t<7)=0.10+0.40+0.10=0.60$.



        Now that we have the probability that a single runner will make it in under 7 minutes we can move on to the problem that all of 50 runners will make it under 7 minutes.



        As mentioned in a previous answer, the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes (assuming independence, etc.) would be modeled using the binomial distribution:



        $$Xsimtext B(50, 0.60)Rightarrow P(X=x)={50choose x}(0.60)^x(0.40)^{50-x}$$



        where $X$ represents the number of runners who make it in under 7 minutes where the probability that any runner will make it in under 7 minutes is $0.60$.



        For $x=50$ (the number of runners who make it under 7 minutes is all 50), this gives us:



        $$P(X=50)=(0.60)^{50}=8.1times 10^{-12}$$



        (which is pretty darn close to impossible).







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 25 at 5:05









        Richard AmblerRichard Ambler

        1,308615




        1,308615






























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