Relation between chromatic number and average degree












1












$begingroup$


In my lecture notes, I read that a graph G which has vertices whose average degree is at most $d$ is not $d + 1$ colorable. This seems counter-intuitive to me.



I have tried examples with various graphs and cycles between them (so each vertex has degree 2 and hence average degree is 2) to find a case to support the claim. But I can't seem to find any.



Is this a mistake in the lecture notes or am I just not seeing something obvious?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't understand the claim. Is it saying that every graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ has chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is clearly false, any graph with no edges is a counterexample. Or is it saying that there exists a graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ and chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is trivially true; just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$. I think you must have left out some assumption.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 5:09










  • $begingroup$
    From the text: An undirected graph $G$ with an average degree of at most $d$ cannot be coloured using $d+1$ colours. I think the text is referring to any graph G is not $d+1$ colourable if the average degree is at most $d$. As for your examples, a graph with no edges has an average degree 0 (d)and it's chromatic number is 1 (d+1) so it holds.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 5:42










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean, it holds? The text says "is not $d+1$ colourable"; if we set $d=0$ the graph with no edges is $d+1$ colourable. Moreover, "at most $d$" means $le d$; a graph with no edges has average degree $0$ which is certainly "at most $500$", but it is $501$ colourable.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 5:51












  • $begingroup$
    My bad, I got confused. But basically, the question boils down to: Can you colour a graph with d + 1 colours, if the average degree is at most d? I am sorry for making it confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:15










  • $begingroup$
    I already gave the counterexample: just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 6:48
















1












$begingroup$


In my lecture notes, I read that a graph G which has vertices whose average degree is at most $d$ is not $d + 1$ colorable. This seems counter-intuitive to me.



I have tried examples with various graphs and cycles between them (so each vertex has degree 2 and hence average degree is 2) to find a case to support the claim. But I can't seem to find any.



Is this a mistake in the lecture notes or am I just not seeing something obvious?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't understand the claim. Is it saying that every graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ has chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is clearly false, any graph with no edges is a counterexample. Or is it saying that there exists a graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ and chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is trivially true; just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$. I think you must have left out some assumption.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 5:09










  • $begingroup$
    From the text: An undirected graph $G$ with an average degree of at most $d$ cannot be coloured using $d+1$ colours. I think the text is referring to any graph G is not $d+1$ colourable if the average degree is at most $d$. As for your examples, a graph with no edges has an average degree 0 (d)and it's chromatic number is 1 (d+1) so it holds.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 5:42










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean, it holds? The text says "is not $d+1$ colourable"; if we set $d=0$ the graph with no edges is $d+1$ colourable. Moreover, "at most $d$" means $le d$; a graph with no edges has average degree $0$ which is certainly "at most $500$", but it is $501$ colourable.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 5:51












  • $begingroup$
    My bad, I got confused. But basically, the question boils down to: Can you colour a graph with d + 1 colours, if the average degree is at most d? I am sorry for making it confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:15










  • $begingroup$
    I already gave the counterexample: just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 6:48














1












1








1





$begingroup$


In my lecture notes, I read that a graph G which has vertices whose average degree is at most $d$ is not $d + 1$ colorable. This seems counter-intuitive to me.



I have tried examples with various graphs and cycles between them (so each vertex has degree 2 and hence average degree is 2) to find a case to support the claim. But I can't seem to find any.



Is this a mistake in the lecture notes or am I just not seeing something obvious?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




In my lecture notes, I read that a graph G which has vertices whose average degree is at most $d$ is not $d + 1$ colorable. This seems counter-intuitive to me.



I have tried examples with various graphs and cycles between them (so each vertex has degree 2 and hence average degree is 2) to find a case to support the claim. But I can't seem to find any.



Is this a mistake in the lecture notes or am I just not seeing something obvious?







discrete-mathematics graph-theory coloring






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 25 at 5:23









gt6989b

35k22557




35k22557










asked Jan 25 at 4:58









hussain sagarhussain sagar

908




908








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't understand the claim. Is it saying that every graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ has chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is clearly false, any graph with no edges is a counterexample. Or is it saying that there exists a graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ and chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is trivially true; just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$. I think you must have left out some assumption.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 5:09










  • $begingroup$
    From the text: An undirected graph $G$ with an average degree of at most $d$ cannot be coloured using $d+1$ colours. I think the text is referring to any graph G is not $d+1$ colourable if the average degree is at most $d$. As for your examples, a graph with no edges has an average degree 0 (d)and it's chromatic number is 1 (d+1) so it holds.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 5:42










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean, it holds? The text says "is not $d+1$ colourable"; if we set $d=0$ the graph with no edges is $d+1$ colourable. Moreover, "at most $d$" means $le d$; a graph with no edges has average degree $0$ which is certainly "at most $500$", but it is $501$ colourable.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 5:51












  • $begingroup$
    My bad, I got confused. But basically, the question boils down to: Can you colour a graph with d + 1 colours, if the average degree is at most d? I am sorry for making it confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:15










  • $begingroup$
    I already gave the counterexample: just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 6:48














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't understand the claim. Is it saying that every graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ has chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is clearly false, any graph with no edges is a counterexample. Or is it saying that there exists a graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ and chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is trivially true; just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$. I think you must have left out some assumption.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 5:09










  • $begingroup$
    From the text: An undirected graph $G$ with an average degree of at most $d$ cannot be coloured using $d+1$ colours. I think the text is referring to any graph G is not $d+1$ colourable if the average degree is at most $d$. As for your examples, a graph with no edges has an average degree 0 (d)and it's chromatic number is 1 (d+1) so it holds.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 5:42










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean, it holds? The text says "is not $d+1$ colourable"; if we set $d=0$ the graph with no edges is $d+1$ colourable. Moreover, "at most $d$" means $le d$; a graph with no edges has average degree $0$ which is certainly "at most $500$", but it is $501$ colourable.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 5:51












  • $begingroup$
    My bad, I got confused. But basically, the question boils down to: Can you colour a graph with d + 1 colours, if the average degree is at most d? I am sorry for making it confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:15










  • $begingroup$
    I already gave the counterexample: just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Jan 25 at 6:48








1




1




$begingroup$
I don't understand the claim. Is it saying that every graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ has chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is clearly false, any graph with no edges is a counterexample. Or is it saying that there exists a graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ and chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is trivially true; just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$. I think you must have left out some assumption.
$endgroup$
– bof
Jan 25 at 5:09




$begingroup$
I don't understand the claim. Is it saying that every graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ has chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is clearly false, any graph with no edges is a counterexample. Or is it saying that there exists a graph $G$ with average degree $le d$ and chromatic number $gt d+1$? This is trivially true; just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$. I think you must have left out some assumption.
$endgroup$
– bof
Jan 25 at 5:09












$begingroup$
From the text: An undirected graph $G$ with an average degree of at most $d$ cannot be coloured using $d+1$ colours. I think the text is referring to any graph G is not $d+1$ colourable if the average degree is at most $d$. As for your examples, a graph with no edges has an average degree 0 (d)and it's chromatic number is 1 (d+1) so it holds.
$endgroup$
– hussain sagar
Jan 25 at 5:42




$begingroup$
From the text: An undirected graph $G$ with an average degree of at most $d$ cannot be coloured using $d+1$ colours. I think the text is referring to any graph G is not $d+1$ colourable if the average degree is at most $d$. As for your examples, a graph with no edges has an average degree 0 (d)and it's chromatic number is 1 (d+1) so it holds.
$endgroup$
– hussain sagar
Jan 25 at 5:42












$begingroup$
What do you mean, it holds? The text says "is not $d+1$ colourable"; if we set $d=0$ the graph with no edges is $d+1$ colourable. Moreover, "at most $d$" means $le d$; a graph with no edges has average degree $0$ which is certainly "at most $500$", but it is $501$ colourable.
$endgroup$
– bof
Jan 25 at 5:51






$begingroup$
What do you mean, it holds? The text says "is not $d+1$ colourable"; if we set $d=0$ the graph with no edges is $d+1$ colourable. Moreover, "at most $d$" means $le d$; a graph with no edges has average degree $0$ which is certainly "at most $500$", but it is $501$ colourable.
$endgroup$
– bof
Jan 25 at 5:51














$begingroup$
My bad, I got confused. But basically, the question boils down to: Can you colour a graph with d + 1 colours, if the average degree is at most d? I am sorry for making it confusing.
$endgroup$
– hussain sagar
Jan 25 at 6:15




$begingroup$
My bad, I got confused. But basically, the question boils down to: Can you colour a graph with d + 1 colours, if the average degree is at most d? I am sorry for making it confusing.
$endgroup$
– hussain sagar
Jan 25 at 6:15












$begingroup$
I already gave the counterexample: just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$.
$endgroup$
– bof
Jan 25 at 6:48




$begingroup$
I already gave the counterexample: just take a graph of chromatic number $d+2$ and add enough isolated vertices to lower the average degree to $le d$.
$endgroup$
– bof
Jan 25 at 6:48










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

There is no relationship between chromatic number and average degree.



On one hand, a graph with chromatic number $2$ can have arbitrarily large average degree. Just consider the complete bipartite graph $K_{n,n}$: this has average degree $n$, but chromatic number $2$.



On the other hand, you can take any graph with chromatic number $k$ and reduce its average degree to an arbitrarily small number by adding many isolated vertices. If your starting graph has $n$ vertices, it has at most $binom n2$ edges. By adding $tbinom n2 -n$ more isolated vertices, you reduce the average degree to at most $frac{2binom n2}{t binom n2} = frac2t$, which can be made as small as you want.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I see that intuitively, but could you provide a numerical example for the same? I have been searching for one but have been unable to find one.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    I have edited my answer; does this help?
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Jan 25 at 6:40











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1 Answer
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active

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$begingroup$

There is no relationship between chromatic number and average degree.



On one hand, a graph with chromatic number $2$ can have arbitrarily large average degree. Just consider the complete bipartite graph $K_{n,n}$: this has average degree $n$, but chromatic number $2$.



On the other hand, you can take any graph with chromatic number $k$ and reduce its average degree to an arbitrarily small number by adding many isolated vertices. If your starting graph has $n$ vertices, it has at most $binom n2$ edges. By adding $tbinom n2 -n$ more isolated vertices, you reduce the average degree to at most $frac{2binom n2}{t binom n2} = frac2t$, which can be made as small as you want.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I see that intuitively, but could you provide a numerical example for the same? I have been searching for one but have been unable to find one.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    I have edited my answer; does this help?
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Jan 25 at 6:40
















2












$begingroup$

There is no relationship between chromatic number and average degree.



On one hand, a graph with chromatic number $2$ can have arbitrarily large average degree. Just consider the complete bipartite graph $K_{n,n}$: this has average degree $n$, but chromatic number $2$.



On the other hand, you can take any graph with chromatic number $k$ and reduce its average degree to an arbitrarily small number by adding many isolated vertices. If your starting graph has $n$ vertices, it has at most $binom n2$ edges. By adding $tbinom n2 -n$ more isolated vertices, you reduce the average degree to at most $frac{2binom n2}{t binom n2} = frac2t$, which can be made as small as you want.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I see that intuitively, but could you provide a numerical example for the same? I have been searching for one but have been unable to find one.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    I have edited my answer; does this help?
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Jan 25 at 6:40














2












2








2





$begingroup$

There is no relationship between chromatic number and average degree.



On one hand, a graph with chromatic number $2$ can have arbitrarily large average degree. Just consider the complete bipartite graph $K_{n,n}$: this has average degree $n$, but chromatic number $2$.



On the other hand, you can take any graph with chromatic number $k$ and reduce its average degree to an arbitrarily small number by adding many isolated vertices. If your starting graph has $n$ vertices, it has at most $binom n2$ edges. By adding $tbinom n2 -n$ more isolated vertices, you reduce the average degree to at most $frac{2binom n2}{t binom n2} = frac2t$, which can be made as small as you want.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



There is no relationship between chromatic number and average degree.



On one hand, a graph with chromatic number $2$ can have arbitrarily large average degree. Just consider the complete bipartite graph $K_{n,n}$: this has average degree $n$, but chromatic number $2$.



On the other hand, you can take any graph with chromatic number $k$ and reduce its average degree to an arbitrarily small number by adding many isolated vertices. If your starting graph has $n$ vertices, it has at most $binom n2$ edges. By adding $tbinom n2 -n$ more isolated vertices, you reduce the average degree to at most $frac{2binom n2}{t binom n2} = frac2t$, which can be made as small as you want.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 25 at 15:10

























answered Jan 25 at 6:33









Misha LavrovMisha Lavrov

47.7k657107




47.7k657107












  • $begingroup$
    I see that intuitively, but could you provide a numerical example for the same? I have been searching for one but have been unable to find one.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    I have edited my answer; does this help?
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Jan 25 at 6:40


















  • $begingroup$
    I see that intuitively, but could you provide a numerical example for the same? I have been searching for one but have been unable to find one.
    $endgroup$
    – hussain sagar
    Jan 25 at 6:35










  • $begingroup$
    I have edited my answer; does this help?
    $endgroup$
    – Misha Lavrov
    Jan 25 at 6:40
















$begingroup$
I see that intuitively, but could you provide a numerical example for the same? I have been searching for one but have been unable to find one.
$endgroup$
– hussain sagar
Jan 25 at 6:35




$begingroup$
I see that intuitively, but could you provide a numerical example for the same? I have been searching for one but have been unable to find one.
$endgroup$
– hussain sagar
Jan 25 at 6:35












$begingroup$
I have edited my answer; does this help?
$endgroup$
– Misha Lavrov
Jan 25 at 6:40




$begingroup$
I have edited my answer; does this help?
$endgroup$
– Misha Lavrov
Jan 25 at 6:40


















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