How to show $operatorname{card}(omega+1)=omega$












0












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Apparently $operatorname{card}(omega+1)=omega$. This means that there is an order $<$ on $omega+1$ such that there is an isomorphism of ordered set $f$, $(omega+1,<) cong (omega,in)$, but to what does $f$ send $omega in omega+1$?



Edit



Also to show $card(omega+1)=omega$ I think I need to show that any ordinal $alpha$ that is in bijection with $omega+1$ is such that $alpha ge omega$ no? [I know also that if two ordinals are isomorphic ($langle beta, in rangle cong langle gamma, in rangle$ i.e. isomorphism of ordered set) then $beta=gamma$, is this usefull here?.]










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Apparently $operatorname{card}(omega+1)=omega$. This means that there is an order $<$ on $omega+1$ such that there is an isomorphism of ordered set $f$, $(omega+1,<) cong (omega,in)$, but to what does $f$ send $omega in omega+1$?



    Edit



    Also to show $card(omega+1)=omega$ I think I need to show that any ordinal $alpha$ that is in bijection with $omega+1$ is such that $alpha ge omega$ no? [I know also that if two ordinals are isomorphic ($langle beta, in rangle cong langle gamma, in rangle$ i.e. isomorphism of ordered set) then $beta=gamma$, is this usefull here?.]










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Apparently $operatorname{card}(omega+1)=omega$. This means that there is an order $<$ on $omega+1$ such that there is an isomorphism of ordered set $f$, $(omega+1,<) cong (omega,in)$, but to what does $f$ send $omega in omega+1$?



      Edit



      Also to show $card(omega+1)=omega$ I think I need to show that any ordinal $alpha$ that is in bijection with $omega+1$ is such that $alpha ge omega$ no? [I know also that if two ordinals are isomorphic ($langle beta, in rangle cong langle gamma, in rangle$ i.e. isomorphism of ordered set) then $beta=gamma$, is this usefull here?.]










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Apparently $operatorname{card}(omega+1)=omega$. This means that there is an order $<$ on $omega+1$ such that there is an isomorphism of ordered set $f$, $(omega+1,<) cong (omega,in)$, but to what does $f$ send $omega in omega+1$?



      Edit



      Also to show $card(omega+1)=omega$ I think I need to show that any ordinal $alpha$ that is in bijection with $omega+1$ is such that $alpha ge omega$ no? [I know also that if two ordinals are isomorphic ($langle beta, in rangle cong langle gamma, in rangle$ i.e. isomorphism of ordered set) then $beta=gamma$, is this usefull here?.]







      elementary-set-theory cardinals






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      edited Jan 22 at 15:09







      roi_saumon

















      asked Jan 22 at 14:29









      roi_saumonroi_saumon

      59438




      59438






















          2 Answers
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          3












          $begingroup$

          If it it only concerns cardinality then a bijection is enough.



          If you insist on an order preserving bijection then:



          Let $<$ on $omega+1$ be defined by $omega<0$ and $n<m$ if $n,minomega$ with $nin m$.



          Then $f$ can be prescribed by:




          • $omegamapsto0$


          • $nmapsto n+1$ for $ninomega$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks, I forgot one thing though that I edited in the question.
            $endgroup$
            – roi_saumon
            Jan 22 at 15:10





















          1












          $begingroup$

          This is know as the Hilbert hotel paradox.



          enter image description here



          The Hilbert hotel have an infinite number rooms (all aligned in one dimension), so we assimilate it to $omega$.



          $1$ new customer arrives, but the hotel is full, every room is occupied by $omega$ customers.



          But the butler just invites the new customer to take the first room (labelled $1$) and asks the initial occupant to move to the next room ($1mapsto 2$) and so on ($nmapsto n+1$) for successive occupants.



          Finally $omega+1$ customers can fit in the Hilbert hotel.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            3












            $begingroup$

            If it it only concerns cardinality then a bijection is enough.



            If you insist on an order preserving bijection then:



            Let $<$ on $omega+1$ be defined by $omega<0$ and $n<m$ if $n,minomega$ with $nin m$.



            Then $f$ can be prescribed by:




            • $omegamapsto0$


            • $nmapsto n+1$ for $ninomega$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, I forgot one thing though that I edited in the question.
              $endgroup$
              – roi_saumon
              Jan 22 at 15:10


















            3












            $begingroup$

            If it it only concerns cardinality then a bijection is enough.



            If you insist on an order preserving bijection then:



            Let $<$ on $omega+1$ be defined by $omega<0$ and $n<m$ if $n,minomega$ with $nin m$.



            Then $f$ can be prescribed by:




            • $omegamapsto0$


            • $nmapsto n+1$ for $ninomega$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, I forgot one thing though that I edited in the question.
              $endgroup$
              – roi_saumon
              Jan 22 at 15:10
















            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            If it it only concerns cardinality then a bijection is enough.



            If you insist on an order preserving bijection then:



            Let $<$ on $omega+1$ be defined by $omega<0$ and $n<m$ if $n,minomega$ with $nin m$.



            Then $f$ can be prescribed by:




            • $omegamapsto0$


            • $nmapsto n+1$ for $ninomega$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            If it it only concerns cardinality then a bijection is enough.



            If you insist on an order preserving bijection then:



            Let $<$ on $omega+1$ be defined by $omega<0$ and $n<m$ if $n,minomega$ with $nin m$.



            Then $f$ can be prescribed by:




            • $omegamapsto0$


            • $nmapsto n+1$ for $ninomega$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 22 at 14:41

























            answered Jan 22 at 14:37









            drhabdrhab

            103k545136




            103k545136












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, I forgot one thing though that I edited in the question.
              $endgroup$
              – roi_saumon
              Jan 22 at 15:10




















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, I forgot one thing though that I edited in the question.
              $endgroup$
              – roi_saumon
              Jan 22 at 15:10


















            $begingroup$
            Thanks, I forgot one thing though that I edited in the question.
            $endgroup$
            – roi_saumon
            Jan 22 at 15:10






            $begingroup$
            Thanks, I forgot one thing though that I edited in the question.
            $endgroup$
            – roi_saumon
            Jan 22 at 15:10













            1












            $begingroup$

            This is know as the Hilbert hotel paradox.



            enter image description here



            The Hilbert hotel have an infinite number rooms (all aligned in one dimension), so we assimilate it to $omega$.



            $1$ new customer arrives, but the hotel is full, every room is occupied by $omega$ customers.



            But the butler just invites the new customer to take the first room (labelled $1$) and asks the initial occupant to move to the next room ($1mapsto 2$) and so on ($nmapsto n+1$) for successive occupants.



            Finally $omega+1$ customers can fit in the Hilbert hotel.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              This is know as the Hilbert hotel paradox.



              enter image description here



              The Hilbert hotel have an infinite number rooms (all aligned in one dimension), so we assimilate it to $omega$.



              $1$ new customer arrives, but the hotel is full, every room is occupied by $omega$ customers.



              But the butler just invites the new customer to take the first room (labelled $1$) and asks the initial occupant to move to the next room ($1mapsto 2$) and so on ($nmapsto n+1$) for successive occupants.



              Finally $omega+1$ customers can fit in the Hilbert hotel.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                This is know as the Hilbert hotel paradox.



                enter image description here



                The Hilbert hotel have an infinite number rooms (all aligned in one dimension), so we assimilate it to $omega$.



                $1$ new customer arrives, but the hotel is full, every room is occupied by $omega$ customers.



                But the butler just invites the new customer to take the first room (labelled $1$) and asks the initial occupant to move to the next room ($1mapsto 2$) and so on ($nmapsto n+1$) for successive occupants.



                Finally $omega+1$ customers can fit in the Hilbert hotel.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                This is know as the Hilbert hotel paradox.



                enter image description here



                The Hilbert hotel have an infinite number rooms (all aligned in one dimension), so we assimilate it to $omega$.



                $1$ new customer arrives, but the hotel is full, every room is occupied by $omega$ customers.



                But the butler just invites the new customer to take the first room (labelled $1$) and asks the initial occupant to move to the next room ($1mapsto 2$) and so on ($nmapsto n+1$) for successive occupants.



                Finally $omega+1$ customers can fit in the Hilbert hotel.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 22 at 15:24









                zwimzwim

                12.5k831




                12.5k831






























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