Multiplicative inverse of polynomial modulus an integer












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How do you calculate the multiplicative inverse of a polynomial mod a monomial/integer?The specific questions are:
Find the multiplicative inverse of
1) x+1 mod 3
2) x^2+x-1 mod 3
3) x^2+x-1 mod 32



I understand that you need to use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to solve it. For integer mod integer (e.g. 11 mod 26) and polynomial mod polynomial, its clear.But how to solve x+1 mod 3?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    How do you calculate the multiplicative inverse of a polynomial mod a monomial/integer?The specific questions are:
    Find the multiplicative inverse of
    1) x+1 mod 3
    2) x^2+x-1 mod 3
    3) x^2+x-1 mod 32



    I understand that you need to use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to solve it. For integer mod integer (e.g. 11 mod 26) and polynomial mod polynomial, its clear.But how to solve x+1 mod 3?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      How do you calculate the multiplicative inverse of a polynomial mod a monomial/integer?The specific questions are:
      Find the multiplicative inverse of
      1) x+1 mod 3
      2) x^2+x-1 mod 3
      3) x^2+x-1 mod 32



      I understand that you need to use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to solve it. For integer mod integer (e.g. 11 mod 26) and polynomial mod polynomial, its clear.But how to solve x+1 mod 3?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      How do you calculate the multiplicative inverse of a polynomial mod a monomial/integer?The specific questions are:
      Find the multiplicative inverse of
      1) x+1 mod 3
      2) x^2+x-1 mod 3
      3) x^2+x-1 mod 32



      I understand that you need to use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to solve it. For integer mod integer (e.g. 11 mod 26) and polynomial mod polynomial, its clear.But how to solve x+1 mod 3?







      modular-arithmetic inverse






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      asked Jul 14 '15 at 13:40









      jaynjaynjaynjayn

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          Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.



          If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.



          For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the response.
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 14 '15 at 16:06










          • $begingroup$
            do you mean that for a polynomial f to have a multiplicative inverse mod g then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g ? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3 meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and deg f=1` and deg g=0 . Kindly explain
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:03










          • $begingroup$
            If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
            $endgroup$
            – Bernard
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:29











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.



          If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.



          For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the response.
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 14 '15 at 16:06










          • $begingroup$
            do you mean that for a polynomial f to have a multiplicative inverse mod g then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g ? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3 meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and deg f=1` and deg g=0 . Kindly explain
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:03










          • $begingroup$
            If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
            $endgroup$
            – Bernard
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.



          If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.



          For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the response.
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 14 '15 at 16:06










          • $begingroup$
            do you mean that for a polynomial f to have a multiplicative inverse mod g then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g ? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3 meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and deg f=1` and deg g=0 . Kindly explain
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:03










          • $begingroup$
            If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
            $endgroup$
            – Bernard
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:29














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.



          If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.



          For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.



          If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.



          For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jul 14 '15 at 14:13









          BernardBernard

          122k741116




          122k741116












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the response.
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 14 '15 at 16:06










          • $begingroup$
            do you mean that for a polynomial f to have a multiplicative inverse mod g then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g ? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3 meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and deg f=1` and deg g=0 . Kindly explain
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:03










          • $begingroup$
            If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
            $endgroup$
            – Bernard
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:29


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the response.
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 14 '15 at 16:06










          • $begingroup$
            do you mean that for a polynomial f to have a multiplicative inverse mod g then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g ? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3 meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and deg f=1` and deg g=0 . Kindly explain
            $endgroup$
            – jaynjayn
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:03










          • $begingroup$
            If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
            $endgroup$
            – Bernard
            Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the response.
          $endgroup$
          – jaynjayn
          Jul 14 '15 at 16:06




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the response.
          $endgroup$
          – jaynjayn
          Jul 14 '15 at 16:06












          $begingroup$
          do you mean that for a polynomial f to have a multiplicative inverse mod g then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g ? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3 meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and deg f=1` and deg g=0 . Kindly explain
          $endgroup$
          – jaynjayn
          Jul 15 '15 at 7:03




          $begingroup$
          do you mean that for a polynomial f to have a multiplicative inverse mod g then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g ? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3 meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and deg f=1` and deg g=0 . Kindly explain
          $endgroup$
          – jaynjayn
          Jul 15 '15 at 7:03












          $begingroup$
          If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
          $endgroup$
          – Bernard
          Jul 15 '15 at 7:29




          $begingroup$
          If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
          $endgroup$
          – Bernard
          Jul 15 '15 at 7:29


















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