Multiplicative inverse of polynomial modulus an integer
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How do you calculate the multiplicative inverse of a polynomial mod a monomial/integer?The specific questions are:
Find the multiplicative inverse of
1) x+1 mod 3
2) x^2+x-1 mod 3
3) x^2+x-1 mod 32
I understand that you need to use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to solve it. For integer mod integer (e.g. 11 mod 26) and polynomial mod polynomial, its clear.But how to solve x+1 mod 3?
modular-arithmetic inverse
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
How do you calculate the multiplicative inverse of a polynomial mod a monomial/integer?The specific questions are:
Find the multiplicative inverse of
1) x+1 mod 3
2) x^2+x-1 mod 3
3) x^2+x-1 mod 32
I understand that you need to use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to solve it. For integer mod integer (e.g. 11 mod 26) and polynomial mod polynomial, its clear.But how to solve x+1 mod 3?
modular-arithmetic inverse
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How do you calculate the multiplicative inverse of a polynomial mod a monomial/integer?The specific questions are:
Find the multiplicative inverse of
1) x+1 mod 3
2) x^2+x-1 mod 3
3) x^2+x-1 mod 32
I understand that you need to use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to solve it. For integer mod integer (e.g. 11 mod 26) and polynomial mod polynomial, its clear.But how to solve x+1 mod 3?
modular-arithmetic inverse
$endgroup$
How do you calculate the multiplicative inverse of a polynomial mod a monomial/integer?The specific questions are:
Find the multiplicative inverse of
1) x+1 mod 3
2) x^2+x-1 mod 3
3) x^2+x-1 mod 32
I understand that you need to use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to solve it. For integer mod integer (e.g. 11 mod 26) and polynomial mod polynomial, its clear.But how to solve x+1 mod 3?
modular-arithmetic inverse
modular-arithmetic inverse
asked Jul 14 '15 at 13:40
jaynjaynjaynjayn
1
1
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add a comment |
1 Answer
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Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.
If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.
For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.
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$begingroup$
Thank you for the response.
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– jaynjayn
Jul 14 '15 at 16:06
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do you mean that for a polynomialf
to have a multiplicative inversemod g
then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g
? If that is the case thenx+1 mod 3
meets the criteria becausedeg ((x+1)3)=1' and
deg f=1` anddeg g=0
. Kindly explain
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 15 '15 at 7:03
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If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.
If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.
For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response.
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 14 '15 at 16:06
$begingroup$
do you mean that for a polynomialf
to have a multiplicative inversemod g
then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g
? If that is the case thenx+1 mod 3
meets the criteria becausedeg ((x+1)3)=1' and
deg f=1` anddeg g=0
. Kindly explain
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 15 '15 at 7:03
$begingroup$
If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.
If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.
For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response.
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 14 '15 at 16:06
$begingroup$
do you mean that for a polynomialf
to have a multiplicative inversemod g
then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g
? If that is the case thenx+1 mod 3
meets the criteria becausedeg ((x+1)3)=1' and
deg f=1` anddeg g=0
. Kindly explain
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 15 '15 at 7:03
$begingroup$
If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.
If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.
For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.
$endgroup$
Neither $x+1$ nor $x^2+x-1$ are invertible modulo $3$, i.e. in the polynomial ring $mathbf Z/3mathbf Z[x]$, which is a polynomial ring over a field, because in such a case, for any polynomials $f,g$ we have $deg fg=deg f+deg g gedeg f,deg g$, which is not compatible with $fg=1$ unless $f$ and $g$ are constants.
If the quotient ring is not a field, this may not be true. However $x^2+x-1$ invertible in $ is impossible since its dominant coefficient is $1$, hence $deg f(x)(x^2+x-1)=deg f+2$.
For an example with coefficients in $mathbf Z/32mathbf Z$ you can check that $;(16x^2-4x+1)(4x+1)=1$.
answered Jul 14 '15 at 14:13
BernardBernard
122k741116
122k741116
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response.
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 14 '15 at 16:06
$begingroup$
do you mean that for a polynomialf
to have a multiplicative inversemod g
then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g
? If that is the case thenx+1 mod 3
meets the criteria becausedeg ((x+1)3)=1' and
deg f=1` anddeg g=0
. Kindly explain
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 15 '15 at 7:03
$begingroup$
If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response.
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 14 '15 at 16:06
$begingroup$
do you mean that for a polynomialf
to have a multiplicative inversemod g
then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g
? If that is the case thenx+1 mod 3
meets the criteria becausedeg ((x+1)3)=1' and
deg f=1` anddeg g=0
. Kindly explain
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 15 '15 at 7:03
$begingroup$
If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response.
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 14 '15 at 16:06
$begingroup$
Thank you for the response.
$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 14 '15 at 16:06
$begingroup$
do you mean that for a polynomial
f
to have a multiplicative inverse mod g
then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g
? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3
meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and
deg f=1` and deg g=0
. Kindly explain$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 15 '15 at 7:03
$begingroup$
do you mean that for a polynomial
f
to have a multiplicative inverse mod g
then inlinedeg fg=deg f+deg g ≥deg f,deg g
? If that is the case then x+1 mod 3
meets the criteria because deg ((x+1)3)=1' and
deg f=1` and deg g=0
. Kindly explain$endgroup$
– jaynjayn
Jul 15 '15 at 7:03
$begingroup$
If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
$begingroup$
If $fg=1$, we must have $deg f+deg g=deg 1=0$, whence $deg f=deg g=0$, i. e. $f$ and $g$ must be non-zero constants.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jul 15 '15 at 7:29
add a comment |
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