Is $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ a Banach Space?












1












$begingroup$


By defining $$
C_0(mathbb{R}^n):={u:uin C(mathbb{R}^n),quadmathtt{and}quadlim_{|x|rightarrowinfty}u(x)=0}
$$

normed with $||u||:=sup_{xinmathbb{R}^n}|u(x)|$. As far as I can remember, this is a Banach space.



My question:
Is this ture or there are counterexamples for this?



Attempts:
I think it is easy to give counterexaple for $C_c(mathbb{R}^n)$ where the condition of "limit at infinitty" is changed into "having compact support". In fact by considering $$
f_n(x):=f_{n-1}(x)+dfrac{1}{n} chi_{xin B_nsetminus B_{n-1}},quad f_0(x):=0, B_0:=varnothing.
$$

which is a Cauchy sequence in $C_c$ but the limit doesn't have compact support. But the limit satisfies $lim_{|x|rightarrowinfty}f(x)=0$.



Thanks for reading and any idea will be helpful.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I believe $C_0(X)$ is Banach for any locally compact $X$. I believe it is even a $C^*$-algebra, only not necessarily unital.
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Jan 22 at 2:50










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the hint, I remembered where to find a proof of this in my textbook. $C_0(X)$ is just the pre-dual space of Radon Measure space and it is the closure of $C_c(X)$ under this norm. Really appreciate the kindness hit. ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 22 at 3:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Zixiao_Liu Don 't ignore absolute value signs. Your $|u|$ is not a norm.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 22 at 7:59










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I forgot the absolute value signs. So sorry about that. I will restate the question. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 22 at 8:02
















1












$begingroup$


By defining $$
C_0(mathbb{R}^n):={u:uin C(mathbb{R}^n),quadmathtt{and}quadlim_{|x|rightarrowinfty}u(x)=0}
$$

normed with $||u||:=sup_{xinmathbb{R}^n}|u(x)|$. As far as I can remember, this is a Banach space.



My question:
Is this ture or there are counterexamples for this?



Attempts:
I think it is easy to give counterexaple for $C_c(mathbb{R}^n)$ where the condition of "limit at infinitty" is changed into "having compact support". In fact by considering $$
f_n(x):=f_{n-1}(x)+dfrac{1}{n} chi_{xin B_nsetminus B_{n-1}},quad f_0(x):=0, B_0:=varnothing.
$$

which is a Cauchy sequence in $C_c$ but the limit doesn't have compact support. But the limit satisfies $lim_{|x|rightarrowinfty}f(x)=0$.



Thanks for reading and any idea will be helpful.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I believe $C_0(X)$ is Banach for any locally compact $X$. I believe it is even a $C^*$-algebra, only not necessarily unital.
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Jan 22 at 2:50










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the hint, I remembered where to find a proof of this in my textbook. $C_0(X)$ is just the pre-dual space of Radon Measure space and it is the closure of $C_c(X)$ under this norm. Really appreciate the kindness hit. ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 22 at 3:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Zixiao_Liu Don 't ignore absolute value signs. Your $|u|$ is not a norm.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 22 at 7:59










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I forgot the absolute value signs. So sorry about that. I will restate the question. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 22 at 8:02














1












1








1





$begingroup$


By defining $$
C_0(mathbb{R}^n):={u:uin C(mathbb{R}^n),quadmathtt{and}quadlim_{|x|rightarrowinfty}u(x)=0}
$$

normed with $||u||:=sup_{xinmathbb{R}^n}|u(x)|$. As far as I can remember, this is a Banach space.



My question:
Is this ture or there are counterexamples for this?



Attempts:
I think it is easy to give counterexaple for $C_c(mathbb{R}^n)$ where the condition of "limit at infinitty" is changed into "having compact support". In fact by considering $$
f_n(x):=f_{n-1}(x)+dfrac{1}{n} chi_{xin B_nsetminus B_{n-1}},quad f_0(x):=0, B_0:=varnothing.
$$

which is a Cauchy sequence in $C_c$ but the limit doesn't have compact support. But the limit satisfies $lim_{|x|rightarrowinfty}f(x)=0$.



Thanks for reading and any idea will be helpful.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




By defining $$
C_0(mathbb{R}^n):={u:uin C(mathbb{R}^n),quadmathtt{and}quadlim_{|x|rightarrowinfty}u(x)=0}
$$

normed with $||u||:=sup_{xinmathbb{R}^n}|u(x)|$. As far as I can remember, this is a Banach space.



My question:
Is this ture or there are counterexamples for this?



Attempts:
I think it is easy to give counterexaple for $C_c(mathbb{R}^n)$ where the condition of "limit at infinitty" is changed into "having compact support". In fact by considering $$
f_n(x):=f_{n-1}(x)+dfrac{1}{n} chi_{xin B_nsetminus B_{n-1}},quad f_0(x):=0, B_0:=varnothing.
$$

which is a Cauchy sequence in $C_c$ but the limit doesn't have compact support. But the limit satisfies $lim_{|x|rightarrowinfty}f(x)=0$.



Thanks for reading and any idea will be helpful.







real-analysis calculus banach-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 22 at 8:02







Zixiao_Liu

















asked Jan 22 at 2:13









Zixiao_LiuZixiao_Liu

938




938












  • $begingroup$
    I believe $C_0(X)$ is Banach for any locally compact $X$. I believe it is even a $C^*$-algebra, only not necessarily unital.
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Jan 22 at 2:50










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the hint, I remembered where to find a proof of this in my textbook. $C_0(X)$ is just the pre-dual space of Radon Measure space and it is the closure of $C_c(X)$ under this norm. Really appreciate the kindness hit. ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 22 at 3:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Zixiao_Liu Don 't ignore absolute value signs. Your $|u|$ is not a norm.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 22 at 7:59










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I forgot the absolute value signs. So sorry about that. I will restate the question. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 22 at 8:02


















  • $begingroup$
    I believe $C_0(X)$ is Banach for any locally compact $X$. I believe it is even a $C^*$-algebra, only not necessarily unital.
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Jan 22 at 2:50










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for the hint, I remembered where to find a proof of this in my textbook. $C_0(X)$ is just the pre-dual space of Radon Measure space and it is the closure of $C_c(X)$ under this norm. Really appreciate the kindness hit. ;)
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 22 at 3:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Zixiao_Liu Don 't ignore absolute value signs. Your $|u|$ is not a norm.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 22 at 7:59










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I forgot the absolute value signs. So sorry about that. I will restate the question. :)
    $endgroup$
    – Zixiao_Liu
    Jan 22 at 8:02
















$begingroup$
I believe $C_0(X)$ is Banach for any locally compact $X$. I believe it is even a $C^*$-algebra, only not necessarily unital.
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 22 at 2:50




$begingroup$
I believe $C_0(X)$ is Banach for any locally compact $X$. I believe it is even a $C^*$-algebra, only not necessarily unital.
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Jan 22 at 2:50












$begingroup$
Thanks for the hint, I remembered where to find a proof of this in my textbook. $C_0(X)$ is just the pre-dual space of Radon Measure space and it is the closure of $C_c(X)$ under this norm. Really appreciate the kindness hit. ;)
$endgroup$
– Zixiao_Liu
Jan 22 at 3:36




$begingroup$
Thanks for the hint, I remembered where to find a proof of this in my textbook. $C_0(X)$ is just the pre-dual space of Radon Measure space and it is the closure of $C_c(X)$ under this norm. Really appreciate the kindness hit. ;)
$endgroup$
– Zixiao_Liu
Jan 22 at 3:36












$begingroup$
@Zixiao_Liu Don 't ignore absolute value signs. Your $|u|$ is not a norm.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 22 at 7:59




$begingroup$
@Zixiao_Liu Don 't ignore absolute value signs. Your $|u|$ is not a norm.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 22 at 7:59












$begingroup$
Yes, I forgot the absolute value signs. So sorry about that. I will restate the question. :)
$endgroup$
– Zixiao_Liu
Jan 22 at 8:02




$begingroup$
Yes, I forgot the absolute value signs. So sorry about that. I will restate the question. :)
$endgroup$
– Zixiao_Liu
Jan 22 at 8:02










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

$C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ is isometric to the space $mathbb{E}$ of continuous functions on $S^n$ (one-point compactification of $mathbb{R}^n$) which vanish on $infty$. The latter is the kernel under the evaluation map
begin{align*}
mathrm{ev}_{infty}:C(S^n) &to mathbb{R}\
f &mapsto f(infty).
end{align*}

Since the evaluation map is continuous, $mathbb{E}$ is closed, therefore Banach (since $C(S^n)$ is Banach) and it follows that $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ also is.



As was said in the comments, this holds for any locally compact space Hausdorff $X$ in place of $mathbb{R}^n$. The proof is the same.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    $begingroup$

    $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ is isometric to the space $mathbb{E}$ of continuous functions on $S^n$ (one-point compactification of $mathbb{R}^n$) which vanish on $infty$. The latter is the kernel under the evaluation map
    begin{align*}
    mathrm{ev}_{infty}:C(S^n) &to mathbb{R}\
    f &mapsto f(infty).
    end{align*}

    Since the evaluation map is continuous, $mathbb{E}$ is closed, therefore Banach (since $C(S^n)$ is Banach) and it follows that $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ also is.



    As was said in the comments, this holds for any locally compact space Hausdorff $X$ in place of $mathbb{R}^n$. The proof is the same.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ is isometric to the space $mathbb{E}$ of continuous functions on $S^n$ (one-point compactification of $mathbb{R}^n$) which vanish on $infty$. The latter is the kernel under the evaluation map
      begin{align*}
      mathrm{ev}_{infty}:C(S^n) &to mathbb{R}\
      f &mapsto f(infty).
      end{align*}

      Since the evaluation map is continuous, $mathbb{E}$ is closed, therefore Banach (since $C(S^n)$ is Banach) and it follows that $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ also is.



      As was said in the comments, this holds for any locally compact space Hausdorff $X$ in place of $mathbb{R}^n$. The proof is the same.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ is isometric to the space $mathbb{E}$ of continuous functions on $S^n$ (one-point compactification of $mathbb{R}^n$) which vanish on $infty$. The latter is the kernel under the evaluation map
        begin{align*}
        mathrm{ev}_{infty}:C(S^n) &to mathbb{R}\
        f &mapsto f(infty).
        end{align*}

        Since the evaluation map is continuous, $mathbb{E}$ is closed, therefore Banach (since $C(S^n)$ is Banach) and it follows that $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ also is.



        As was said in the comments, this holds for any locally compact space Hausdorff $X$ in place of $mathbb{R}^n$. The proof is the same.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ is isometric to the space $mathbb{E}$ of continuous functions on $S^n$ (one-point compactification of $mathbb{R}^n$) which vanish on $infty$. The latter is the kernel under the evaluation map
        begin{align*}
        mathrm{ev}_{infty}:C(S^n) &to mathbb{R}\
        f &mapsto f(infty).
        end{align*}

        Since the evaluation map is continuous, $mathbb{E}$ is closed, therefore Banach (since $C(S^n)$ is Banach) and it follows that $C_0(mathbb{R}^n)$ also is.



        As was said in the comments, this holds for any locally compact space Hausdorff $X$ in place of $mathbb{R}^n$. The proof is the same.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 22 at 8:50









        Aloizio MacedoAloizio Macedo

        23.7k23987




        23.7k23987






























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