Limit of sequence with relation $x_{n+1}=x_n-x_n^2$ [duplicate]












1












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  • $nin N, a_{n+1} = a_n (1 - a_n)$ , $0 < a_0 < 1$. Prove that $limlimits_{ntoinfty} a_ncdot n = 1$.

    1 answer




Let the sequence of real numbers is defined as follows: $x_1=frac{1}{2}$ and $x_{n+1}=x_n-x_n^2$. Show that $lim_{nto infty}nx_n=1$.



I've shown that the limit of $x_n$ is zero since this sequence is bounded and monotone. How to show that $nx_nto 1$ as $nto infty$?



I have no ideas how to handle this problem.



It would be interesting to see approach.










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marked as duplicate by rtybase, max_zorn, Lord Shark the Unknown, Eric Wofsey real-analysis
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Jan 27 at 6:58


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Let $y_n = n x_n$. Then find the recurrence for $y_n$. The initial condition is known. Can you apply the same method to find the limit?
    $endgroup$
    – Sasha
    Jan 26 at 22:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I'd start by observing that $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac{1}{x_n}+1+O(x_n).$$
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 26 at 22:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Sasha, i cannot answer you remark from the top of my head but i have done this approach before posting a question and if i am not mistaken this approach was not useful
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Jan 26 at 22:56
















1












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • $nin N, a_{n+1} = a_n (1 - a_n)$ , $0 < a_0 < 1$. Prove that $limlimits_{ntoinfty} a_ncdot n = 1$.

    1 answer




Let the sequence of real numbers is defined as follows: $x_1=frac{1}{2}$ and $x_{n+1}=x_n-x_n^2$. Show that $lim_{nto infty}nx_n=1$.



I've shown that the limit of $x_n$ is zero since this sequence is bounded and monotone. How to show that $nx_nto 1$ as $nto infty$?



I have no ideas how to handle this problem.



It would be interesting to see approach.










share|cite|improve this question









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marked as duplicate by rtybase, max_zorn, Lord Shark the Unknown, Eric Wofsey real-analysis
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Jan 27 at 6:58


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Let $y_n = n x_n$. Then find the recurrence for $y_n$. The initial condition is known. Can you apply the same method to find the limit?
    $endgroup$
    – Sasha
    Jan 26 at 22:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I'd start by observing that $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac{1}{x_n}+1+O(x_n).$$
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 26 at 22:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Sasha, i cannot answer you remark from the top of my head but i have done this approach before posting a question and if i am not mistaken this approach was not useful
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Jan 26 at 22:56














1












1








1





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • $nin N, a_{n+1} = a_n (1 - a_n)$ , $0 < a_0 < 1$. Prove that $limlimits_{ntoinfty} a_ncdot n = 1$.

    1 answer




Let the sequence of real numbers is defined as follows: $x_1=frac{1}{2}$ and $x_{n+1}=x_n-x_n^2$. Show that $lim_{nto infty}nx_n=1$.



I've shown that the limit of $x_n$ is zero since this sequence is bounded and monotone. How to show that $nx_nto 1$ as $nto infty$?



I have no ideas how to handle this problem.



It would be interesting to see approach.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • $nin N, a_{n+1} = a_n (1 - a_n)$ , $0 < a_0 < 1$. Prove that $limlimits_{ntoinfty} a_ncdot n = 1$.

    1 answer




Let the sequence of real numbers is defined as follows: $x_1=frac{1}{2}$ and $x_{n+1}=x_n-x_n^2$. Show that $lim_{nto infty}nx_n=1$.



I've shown that the limit of $x_n$ is zero since this sequence is bounded and monotone. How to show that $nx_nto 1$ as $nto infty$?



I have no ideas how to handle this problem.



It would be interesting to see approach.





This question already has an answer here:




  • $nin N, a_{n+1} = a_n (1 - a_n)$ , $0 < a_0 < 1$. Prove that $limlimits_{ntoinfty} a_ncdot n = 1$.

    1 answer








real-analysis limits






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asked Jan 26 at 22:26









ZFRZFR

5,28331540




5,28331540




marked as duplicate by rtybase, max_zorn, Lord Shark the Unknown, Eric Wofsey real-analysis
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Jan 27 at 6:58


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by rtybase, max_zorn, Lord Shark the Unknown, Eric Wofsey real-analysis
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Jan 27 at 6:58


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    Let $y_n = n x_n$. Then find the recurrence for $y_n$. The initial condition is known. Can you apply the same method to find the limit?
    $endgroup$
    – Sasha
    Jan 26 at 22:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I'd start by observing that $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac{1}{x_n}+1+O(x_n).$$
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 26 at 22:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Sasha, i cannot answer you remark from the top of my head but i have done this approach before posting a question and if i am not mistaken this approach was not useful
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Jan 26 at 22:56


















  • $begingroup$
    Let $y_n = n x_n$. Then find the recurrence for $y_n$. The initial condition is known. Can you apply the same method to find the limit?
    $endgroup$
    – Sasha
    Jan 26 at 22:28








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I'd start by observing that $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac{1}{x_n}+1+O(x_n).$$
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 26 at 22:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Sasha, i cannot answer you remark from the top of my head but i have done this approach before posting a question and if i am not mistaken this approach was not useful
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Jan 26 at 22:56
















$begingroup$
Let $y_n = n x_n$. Then find the recurrence for $y_n$. The initial condition is known. Can you apply the same method to find the limit?
$endgroup$
– Sasha
Jan 26 at 22:28






$begingroup$
Let $y_n = n x_n$. Then find the recurrence for $y_n$. The initial condition is known. Can you apply the same method to find the limit?
$endgroup$
– Sasha
Jan 26 at 22:28






2




2




$begingroup$
I'd start by observing that $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac{1}{x_n}+1+O(x_n).$$
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 26 at 22:30




$begingroup$
I'd start by observing that $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac{1}{x_n}+1+O(x_n).$$
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 26 at 22:30












$begingroup$
@Sasha, i cannot answer you remark from the top of my head but i have done this approach before posting a question and if i am not mistaken this approach was not useful
$endgroup$
– ZFR
Jan 26 at 22:56




$begingroup$
@Sasha, i cannot answer you remark from the top of my head but i have done this approach before posting a question and if i am not mistaken this approach was not useful
$endgroup$
– ZFR
Jan 26 at 22:56










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

We have
$$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n(1-x_n)}=frac1{x_n}+1+x_n+x_n^2+cdots$$
(a geometric series). Thus
$$frac1{x_{n+1}}>frac1{x_n}+1$$
and so
$$frac1{x_n}ge n-1+frac1{x_1}=n+1.$$
Therefore $x_n=O(1/n)$. Then
$$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n}+1+O(1/n)$$
and so
$$frac1{x_n}=n+O(ln n).$$
That's enough.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Quite nice solution? But is it possible to donit without logarithm?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Jan 27 at 1:19










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, see the other solution. Or prove that $sum_{k=1}^n1/k=o(n)$. @ZFR
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 27 at 10:44



















1












$begingroup$

By Stolz-Cesaro's Lemma we get that
$lim_{ntoinfty}nx_n=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n}{frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{frac{1}{x_{n+1}}-frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_nx_{n+1}}{x_n-x_{n+1}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_n^2-x_n^3}{x_n^2}=lim_{ntoinfty}(1-x_n)=1$






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    3












    $begingroup$

    We have
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n(1-x_n)}=frac1{x_n}+1+x_n+x_n^2+cdots$$
    (a geometric series). Thus
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}>frac1{x_n}+1$$
    and so
    $$frac1{x_n}ge n-1+frac1{x_1}=n+1.$$
    Therefore $x_n=O(1/n)$. Then
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n}+1+O(1/n)$$
    and so
    $$frac1{x_n}=n+O(ln n).$$
    That's enough.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Quite nice solution? But is it possible to donit without logarithm?
      $endgroup$
      – ZFR
      Jan 27 at 1:19










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, see the other solution. Or prove that $sum_{k=1}^n1/k=o(n)$. @ZFR
      $endgroup$
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      Jan 27 at 10:44
















    3












    $begingroup$

    We have
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n(1-x_n)}=frac1{x_n}+1+x_n+x_n^2+cdots$$
    (a geometric series). Thus
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}>frac1{x_n}+1$$
    and so
    $$frac1{x_n}ge n-1+frac1{x_1}=n+1.$$
    Therefore $x_n=O(1/n)$. Then
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n}+1+O(1/n)$$
    and so
    $$frac1{x_n}=n+O(ln n).$$
    That's enough.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Quite nice solution? But is it possible to donit without logarithm?
      $endgroup$
      – ZFR
      Jan 27 at 1:19










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, see the other solution. Or prove that $sum_{k=1}^n1/k=o(n)$. @ZFR
      $endgroup$
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      Jan 27 at 10:44














    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    We have
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n(1-x_n)}=frac1{x_n}+1+x_n+x_n^2+cdots$$
    (a geometric series). Thus
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}>frac1{x_n}+1$$
    and so
    $$frac1{x_n}ge n-1+frac1{x_1}=n+1.$$
    Therefore $x_n=O(1/n)$. Then
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n}+1+O(1/n)$$
    and so
    $$frac1{x_n}=n+O(ln n).$$
    That's enough.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    We have
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n(1-x_n)}=frac1{x_n}+1+x_n+x_n^2+cdots$$
    (a geometric series). Thus
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}>frac1{x_n}+1$$
    and so
    $$frac1{x_n}ge n-1+frac1{x_1}=n+1.$$
    Therefore $x_n=O(1/n)$. Then
    $$frac1{x_{n+1}}=frac1{x_n}+1+O(1/n)$$
    and so
    $$frac1{x_n}=n+O(ln n).$$
    That's enough.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 26 at 22:46









    Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

    107k1161133




    107k1161133












    • $begingroup$
      Quite nice solution? But is it possible to donit without logarithm?
      $endgroup$
      – ZFR
      Jan 27 at 1:19










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, see the other solution. Or prove that $sum_{k=1}^n1/k=o(n)$. @ZFR
      $endgroup$
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      Jan 27 at 10:44


















    • $begingroup$
      Quite nice solution? But is it possible to donit without logarithm?
      $endgroup$
      – ZFR
      Jan 27 at 1:19










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, see the other solution. Or prove that $sum_{k=1}^n1/k=o(n)$. @ZFR
      $endgroup$
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      Jan 27 at 10:44
















    $begingroup$
    Quite nice solution? But is it possible to donit without logarithm?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Jan 27 at 1:19




    $begingroup$
    Quite nice solution? But is it possible to donit without logarithm?
    $endgroup$
    – ZFR
    Jan 27 at 1:19












    $begingroup$
    Yes, see the other solution. Or prove that $sum_{k=1}^n1/k=o(n)$. @ZFR
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 27 at 10:44




    $begingroup$
    Yes, see the other solution. Or prove that $sum_{k=1}^n1/k=o(n)$. @ZFR
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 27 at 10:44











    1












    $begingroup$

    By Stolz-Cesaro's Lemma we get that
    $lim_{ntoinfty}nx_n=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n}{frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{frac{1}{x_{n+1}}-frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_nx_{n+1}}{x_n-x_{n+1}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_n^2-x_n^3}{x_n^2}=lim_{ntoinfty}(1-x_n)=1$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      By Stolz-Cesaro's Lemma we get that
      $lim_{ntoinfty}nx_n=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n}{frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{frac{1}{x_{n+1}}-frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_nx_{n+1}}{x_n-x_{n+1}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_n^2-x_n^3}{x_n^2}=lim_{ntoinfty}(1-x_n)=1$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        By Stolz-Cesaro's Lemma we get that
        $lim_{ntoinfty}nx_n=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n}{frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{frac{1}{x_{n+1}}-frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_nx_{n+1}}{x_n-x_{n+1}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_n^2-x_n^3}{x_n^2}=lim_{ntoinfty}(1-x_n)=1$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        By Stolz-Cesaro's Lemma we get that
        $lim_{ntoinfty}nx_n=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{n}{frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{frac{1}{x_{n+1}}-frac{1}{x_n}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_nx_{n+1}}{x_n-x_{n+1}}=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x_n^2-x_n^3}{x_n^2}=lim_{ntoinfty}(1-x_n)=1$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 26 at 23:06









        AlexdanutAlexdanut

        1538




        1538