Proof Concerning the Union of Events A,B,C [duplicate]












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This question already has an answer here:




  • Probability of the union of $3$ events?

    3 answers





${P(A}{cup}{B}{cup}{C)}={P(A)+P(B)+P(C)}-{P(A{cap}B)}-{P(A{cap}C)}-{P(B{cap}C)}+{P(A{cap}B{cap}C)}$


Proof:


${P(A{cup}B{cup}C)}={P(A{cup}(B{cup}C))}$ Associativity


${P(A{cup}(B{cup}C))}={P(A)+P(B{cup}C)-P(A{cap}(B{cup}C))}$ Well-known theorem


${P(A{cap}(B{cup}C)=P(A{cap}B){cup}P(A{cap}C)}$ Distributive


Now I should apply the well-known theorem again.


${P(A{cap}B){cup}P(A{cap}C)=P(A{cap}B)+P(A{cap}C)-P((A{cap}B){cap}P(A{cap}C))}$


I'd be finished if I could show this:


${P((A{cap}B){cap}P(A{cap}C))}=P(A{cap}B{cap}C)$


Which I could easily justify using a Venn Diagram (which is not acceptable). How else could I do this?



EDIT: The duplicate question doesn't help me. The answer says "and since (A∩C)∩(B∩C)=A∩B∩C, the result is proven." but this is not explained and I DONT want to use a Venn Diagram.










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marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, Shailesh, mrtaurho, metamorphy, José Carlos Santos Jan 21 at 11:44


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.























    0












    $begingroup$



    This question already has an answer here:




    • Probability of the union of $3$ events?

      3 answers





    ${P(A}{cup}{B}{cup}{C)}={P(A)+P(B)+P(C)}-{P(A{cap}B)}-{P(A{cap}C)}-{P(B{cap}C)}+{P(A{cap}B{cap}C)}$


    Proof:


    ${P(A{cup}B{cup}C)}={P(A{cup}(B{cup}C))}$ Associativity


    ${P(A{cup}(B{cup}C))}={P(A)+P(B{cup}C)-P(A{cap}(B{cup}C))}$ Well-known theorem


    ${P(A{cap}(B{cup}C)=P(A{cap}B){cup}P(A{cap}C)}$ Distributive


    Now I should apply the well-known theorem again.


    ${P(A{cap}B){cup}P(A{cap}C)=P(A{cap}B)+P(A{cap}C)-P((A{cap}B){cap}P(A{cap}C))}$


    I'd be finished if I could show this:


    ${P((A{cap}B){cap}P(A{cap}C))}=P(A{cap}B{cap}C)$


    Which I could easily justify using a Venn Diagram (which is not acceptable). How else could I do this?



    EDIT: The duplicate question doesn't help me. The answer says "and since (A∩C)∩(B∩C)=A∩B∩C, the result is proven." but this is not explained and I DONT want to use a Venn Diagram.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$



    marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, Shailesh, mrtaurho, metamorphy, José Carlos Santos Jan 21 at 11:44


    This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.





















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      This question already has an answer here:




      • Probability of the union of $3$ events?

        3 answers





      ${P(A}{cup}{B}{cup}{C)}={P(A)+P(B)+P(C)}-{P(A{cap}B)}-{P(A{cap}C)}-{P(B{cap}C)}+{P(A{cap}B{cap}C)}$


      Proof:


      ${P(A{cup}B{cup}C)}={P(A{cup}(B{cup}C))}$ Associativity


      ${P(A{cup}(B{cup}C))}={P(A)+P(B{cup}C)-P(A{cap}(B{cup}C))}$ Well-known theorem


      ${P(A{cap}(B{cup}C)=P(A{cap}B){cup}P(A{cap}C)}$ Distributive


      Now I should apply the well-known theorem again.


      ${P(A{cap}B){cup}P(A{cap}C)=P(A{cap}B)+P(A{cap}C)-P((A{cap}B){cap}P(A{cap}C))}$


      I'd be finished if I could show this:


      ${P((A{cap}B){cap}P(A{cap}C))}=P(A{cap}B{cap}C)$


      Which I could easily justify using a Venn Diagram (which is not acceptable). How else could I do this?



      EDIT: The duplicate question doesn't help me. The answer says "and since (A∩C)∩(B∩C)=A∩B∩C, the result is proven." but this is not explained and I DONT want to use a Venn Diagram.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Probability of the union of $3$ events?

        3 answers





      ${P(A}{cup}{B}{cup}{C)}={P(A)+P(B)+P(C)}-{P(A{cap}B)}-{P(A{cap}C)}-{P(B{cap}C)}+{P(A{cap}B{cap}C)}$


      Proof:


      ${P(A{cup}B{cup}C)}={P(A{cup}(B{cup}C))}$ Associativity


      ${P(A{cup}(B{cup}C))}={P(A)+P(B{cup}C)-P(A{cap}(B{cup}C))}$ Well-known theorem


      ${P(A{cap}(B{cup}C)=P(A{cap}B){cup}P(A{cap}C)}$ Distributive


      Now I should apply the well-known theorem again.


      ${P(A{cap}B){cup}P(A{cap}C)=P(A{cap}B)+P(A{cap}C)-P((A{cap}B){cap}P(A{cap}C))}$


      I'd be finished if I could show this:


      ${P((A{cap}B){cap}P(A{cap}C))}=P(A{cap}B{cap}C)$


      Which I could easily justify using a Venn Diagram (which is not acceptable). How else could I do this?



      EDIT: The duplicate question doesn't help me. The answer says "and since (A∩C)∩(B∩C)=A∩B∩C, the result is proven." but this is not explained and I DONT want to use a Venn Diagram.





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Probability of the union of $3$ events?

        3 answers








      probability statistics






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 21 at 5:30







      Sydney

















      asked Jan 21 at 4:36









      SydneySydney

      234




      234




      marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, Shailesh, mrtaurho, metamorphy, José Carlos Santos Jan 21 at 11:44


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









      marked as duplicate by Lord Shark the Unknown, Shailesh, mrtaurho, metamorphy, José Carlos Santos Jan 21 at 11:44


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebra_of_sets



          If you indeed want to play around with the commutative laws and associative laws, here we go:



          $$ begin{align}
          (A cap C) cap (B cap C)
          &= A cap (C cap (B cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap ((B cap C) cap C) tag{Commutative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap (C cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap C) \
          end{align}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Doesn't really answer my question since what you're showing isn't in MY proof, it's in the proof that someone decided to link to this question because yes, they are SIMILAR. But in order to use what you just gave me, I have to rewrite my entire proof and borrow someone elses. But since you're the only one who attempted and didn't mark it as a duplicate, I'll just give it to you. It's fine.
            $endgroup$
            – Sydney
            Jan 21 at 19:11








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It is interesting that you think you need to rewrite your entire proof, I do not see why. Maybe your concept start to go wrong at line $3$: $P(A cap (B cup C)) = P((A cap B) cup (A cap C))$ (distributive law). At first glance I thought you are just a typo to type the extra $P$ inside, but now it seems that it is a conceptual mistake you have made. Also note that the union operator is usually applied on set, but not numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – BGM
            Jan 22 at 6:34


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebra_of_sets



          If you indeed want to play around with the commutative laws and associative laws, here we go:



          $$ begin{align}
          (A cap C) cap (B cap C)
          &= A cap (C cap (B cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap ((B cap C) cap C) tag{Commutative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap (C cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap C) \
          end{align}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Doesn't really answer my question since what you're showing isn't in MY proof, it's in the proof that someone decided to link to this question because yes, they are SIMILAR. But in order to use what you just gave me, I have to rewrite my entire proof and borrow someone elses. But since you're the only one who attempted and didn't mark it as a duplicate, I'll just give it to you. It's fine.
            $endgroup$
            – Sydney
            Jan 21 at 19:11








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It is interesting that you think you need to rewrite your entire proof, I do not see why. Maybe your concept start to go wrong at line $3$: $P(A cap (B cup C)) = P((A cap B) cup (A cap C))$ (distributive law). At first glance I thought you are just a typo to type the extra $P$ inside, but now it seems that it is a conceptual mistake you have made. Also note that the union operator is usually applied on set, but not numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – BGM
            Jan 22 at 6:34
















          1












          $begingroup$

          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebra_of_sets



          If you indeed want to play around with the commutative laws and associative laws, here we go:



          $$ begin{align}
          (A cap C) cap (B cap C)
          &= A cap (C cap (B cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap ((B cap C) cap C) tag{Commutative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap (C cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap C) \
          end{align}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Doesn't really answer my question since what you're showing isn't in MY proof, it's in the proof that someone decided to link to this question because yes, they are SIMILAR. But in order to use what you just gave me, I have to rewrite my entire proof and borrow someone elses. But since you're the only one who attempted and didn't mark it as a duplicate, I'll just give it to you. It's fine.
            $endgroup$
            – Sydney
            Jan 21 at 19:11








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It is interesting that you think you need to rewrite your entire proof, I do not see why. Maybe your concept start to go wrong at line $3$: $P(A cap (B cup C)) = P((A cap B) cup (A cap C))$ (distributive law). At first glance I thought you are just a typo to type the extra $P$ inside, but now it seems that it is a conceptual mistake you have made. Also note that the union operator is usually applied on set, but not numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – BGM
            Jan 22 at 6:34














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebra_of_sets



          If you indeed want to play around with the commutative laws and associative laws, here we go:



          $$ begin{align}
          (A cap C) cap (B cap C)
          &= A cap (C cap (B cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap ((B cap C) cap C) tag{Commutative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap (C cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap C) \
          end{align}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebra_of_sets



          If you indeed want to play around with the commutative laws and associative laws, here we go:



          $$ begin{align}
          (A cap C) cap (B cap C)
          &= A cap (C cap (B cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap ((B cap C) cap C) tag{Commutative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap (C cap C)) tag{Associative Law} \
          &= A cap (B cap C) \
          end{align}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 21 at 8:23









          BGMBGM

          3,835158




          3,835158












          • $begingroup$
            Doesn't really answer my question since what you're showing isn't in MY proof, it's in the proof that someone decided to link to this question because yes, they are SIMILAR. But in order to use what you just gave me, I have to rewrite my entire proof and borrow someone elses. But since you're the only one who attempted and didn't mark it as a duplicate, I'll just give it to you. It's fine.
            $endgroup$
            – Sydney
            Jan 21 at 19:11








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It is interesting that you think you need to rewrite your entire proof, I do not see why. Maybe your concept start to go wrong at line $3$: $P(A cap (B cup C)) = P((A cap B) cup (A cap C))$ (distributive law). At first glance I thought you are just a typo to type the extra $P$ inside, but now it seems that it is a conceptual mistake you have made. Also note that the union operator is usually applied on set, but not numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – BGM
            Jan 22 at 6:34


















          • $begingroup$
            Doesn't really answer my question since what you're showing isn't in MY proof, it's in the proof that someone decided to link to this question because yes, they are SIMILAR. But in order to use what you just gave me, I have to rewrite my entire proof and borrow someone elses. But since you're the only one who attempted and didn't mark it as a duplicate, I'll just give it to you. It's fine.
            $endgroup$
            – Sydney
            Jan 21 at 19:11








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            It is interesting that you think you need to rewrite your entire proof, I do not see why. Maybe your concept start to go wrong at line $3$: $P(A cap (B cup C)) = P((A cap B) cup (A cap C))$ (distributive law). At first glance I thought you are just a typo to type the extra $P$ inside, but now it seems that it is a conceptual mistake you have made. Also note that the union operator is usually applied on set, but not numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – BGM
            Jan 22 at 6:34
















          $begingroup$
          Doesn't really answer my question since what you're showing isn't in MY proof, it's in the proof that someone decided to link to this question because yes, they are SIMILAR. But in order to use what you just gave me, I have to rewrite my entire proof and borrow someone elses. But since you're the only one who attempted and didn't mark it as a duplicate, I'll just give it to you. It's fine.
          $endgroup$
          – Sydney
          Jan 21 at 19:11






          $begingroup$
          Doesn't really answer my question since what you're showing isn't in MY proof, it's in the proof that someone decided to link to this question because yes, they are SIMILAR. But in order to use what you just gave me, I have to rewrite my entire proof and borrow someone elses. But since you're the only one who attempted and didn't mark it as a duplicate, I'll just give it to you. It's fine.
          $endgroup$
          – Sydney
          Jan 21 at 19:11






          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          It is interesting that you think you need to rewrite your entire proof, I do not see why. Maybe your concept start to go wrong at line $3$: $P(A cap (B cup C)) = P((A cap B) cup (A cap C))$ (distributive law). At first glance I thought you are just a typo to type the extra $P$ inside, but now it seems that it is a conceptual mistake you have made. Also note that the union operator is usually applied on set, but not numbers.
          $endgroup$
          – BGM
          Jan 22 at 6:34




          $begingroup$
          It is interesting that you think you need to rewrite your entire proof, I do not see why. Maybe your concept start to go wrong at line $3$: $P(A cap (B cup C)) = P((A cap B) cup (A cap C))$ (distributive law). At first glance I thought you are just a typo to type the extra $P$ inside, but now it seems that it is a conceptual mistake you have made. Also note that the union operator is usually applied on set, but not numbers.
          $endgroup$
          – BGM
          Jan 22 at 6:34



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