Prove injectivity is equivalent to null space equals ${0}$












0












$begingroup$


I think I got the intuition of the reasoning. Because injectivity means one-to-one, if null space is larger than ${0}$, there are more than one way to transform $V$ to ${0}$. So it is not injective.



But I don't understand the proof.



Proof:



First suppose $T$ is injective. We want to prove that null $T = {0}$. We already know that ${0} subset text{null }T$ (I understand). To prove the inclusion in the other direction (what's that mean?), suppose $v in text{null } T$. Then
$$T(v) = 0 = T(0)$$
Because $T$ is injective, the equation above implies that $v=0$. Thus we can conclude that $text{null }T = {0}$, as desired.



To prove the implication in the other direction (what's that mean?), now suppose $text{null }T = {0}$. We want to prove that $T$ is injective. To do this, suppose $u, v in V$ and $Tu = Tv$. Then
$$0 = Tu - Tv = T(u-v)$$



is this step just coming from $Tu = Tv$? $Tu - Tv = 0$



Thus $u-v$ is in null $T$, which equals to ${0}$. Hence $u-v = 0$, which implies that $u=v$. Hence $T$ is injective, as desired










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I think I got the intuition of the reasoning. Because injectivity means one-to-one, if null space is larger than ${0}$, there are more than one way to transform $V$ to ${0}$. So it is not injective.



    But I don't understand the proof.



    Proof:



    First suppose $T$ is injective. We want to prove that null $T = {0}$. We already know that ${0} subset text{null }T$ (I understand). To prove the inclusion in the other direction (what's that mean?), suppose $v in text{null } T$. Then
    $$T(v) = 0 = T(0)$$
    Because $T$ is injective, the equation above implies that $v=0$. Thus we can conclude that $text{null }T = {0}$, as desired.



    To prove the implication in the other direction (what's that mean?), now suppose $text{null }T = {0}$. We want to prove that $T$ is injective. To do this, suppose $u, v in V$ and $Tu = Tv$. Then
    $$0 = Tu - Tv = T(u-v)$$



    is this step just coming from $Tu = Tv$? $Tu - Tv = 0$



    Thus $u-v$ is in null $T$, which equals to ${0}$. Hence $u-v = 0$, which implies that $u=v$. Hence $T$ is injective, as desired










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I think I got the intuition of the reasoning. Because injectivity means one-to-one, if null space is larger than ${0}$, there are more than one way to transform $V$ to ${0}$. So it is not injective.



      But I don't understand the proof.



      Proof:



      First suppose $T$ is injective. We want to prove that null $T = {0}$. We already know that ${0} subset text{null }T$ (I understand). To prove the inclusion in the other direction (what's that mean?), suppose $v in text{null } T$. Then
      $$T(v) = 0 = T(0)$$
      Because $T$ is injective, the equation above implies that $v=0$. Thus we can conclude that $text{null }T = {0}$, as desired.



      To prove the implication in the other direction (what's that mean?), now suppose $text{null }T = {0}$. We want to prove that $T$ is injective. To do this, suppose $u, v in V$ and $Tu = Tv$. Then
      $$0 = Tu - Tv = T(u-v)$$



      is this step just coming from $Tu = Tv$? $Tu - Tv = 0$



      Thus $u-v$ is in null $T$, which equals to ${0}$. Hence $u-v = 0$, which implies that $u=v$. Hence $T$ is injective, as desired










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I think I got the intuition of the reasoning. Because injectivity means one-to-one, if null space is larger than ${0}$, there are more than one way to transform $V$ to ${0}$. So it is not injective.



      But I don't understand the proof.



      Proof:



      First suppose $T$ is injective. We want to prove that null $T = {0}$. We already know that ${0} subset text{null }T$ (I understand). To prove the inclusion in the other direction (what's that mean?), suppose $v in text{null } T$. Then
      $$T(v) = 0 = T(0)$$
      Because $T$ is injective, the equation above implies that $v=0$. Thus we can conclude that $text{null }T = {0}$, as desired.



      To prove the implication in the other direction (what's that mean?), now suppose $text{null }T = {0}$. We want to prove that $T$ is injective. To do this, suppose $u, v in V$ and $Tu = Tv$. Then
      $$0 = Tu - Tv = T(u-v)$$



      is this step just coming from $Tu = Tv$? $Tu - Tv = 0$



      Thus $u-v$ is in null $T$, which equals to ${0}$. Hence $u-v = 0$, which implies that $u=v$. Hence $T$ is injective, as desired







      linear-algebra linear-transformations proof-explanation






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      asked Jan 24 at 22:56









      JOHN JOHN

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      4279






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:





          1. $Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;

          2. $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$


          Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.



          The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.



            Provin the implication in ther direction means this:



            The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
            $$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$



            Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              2 Answers
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              active

              oldest

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              1












              $begingroup$

              The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:





              1. $Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;

              2. $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$


              Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.



              The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:





                1. $Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;

                2. $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$


                Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.



                The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:





                  1. $Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;

                  2. $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$


                  Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.



                  The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:





                  1. $Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;

                  2. $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$


                  Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.



                  The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jan 25 at 16:02

























                  answered Jan 24 at 23:07









                  José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                  168k23132236




                  168k23132236























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.



                      Provin the implication in ther direction means this:



                      The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
                      $$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$



                      Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.



                        Provin the implication in ther direction means this:



                        The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
                        $$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$



                        Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.



                          Provin the implication in ther direction means this:



                          The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
                          $$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$



                          Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.



                          Provin the implication in ther direction means this:



                          The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
                          $$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$



                          Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 24 at 23:08









                          BernardBernard

                          123k741116




                          123k741116






























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