Prove injectivity is equivalent to null space equals ${0}$
$begingroup$
I think I got the intuition of the reasoning. Because injectivity means one-to-one, if null space is larger than ${0}$, there are more than one way to transform $V$ to ${0}$. So it is not injective.
But I don't understand the proof.
Proof:
First suppose $T$ is injective. We want to prove that null $T = {0}$. We already know that ${0} subset text{null }T$ (I understand). To prove the inclusion in the other direction (what's that mean?), suppose $v in text{null } T$. Then
$$T(v) = 0 = T(0)$$
Because $T$ is injective, the equation above implies that $v=0$. Thus we can conclude that $text{null }T = {0}$, as desired.
To prove the implication in the other direction (what's that mean?), now suppose $text{null }T = {0}$. We want to prove that $T$ is injective. To do this, suppose $u, v in V$ and $Tu = Tv$. Then
$$0 = Tu - Tv = T(u-v)$$
is this step just coming from $Tu = Tv$? $Tu - Tv = 0$
Thus $u-v$ is in null $T$, which equals to ${0}$. Hence $u-v = 0$, which implies that $u=v$. Hence $T$ is injective, as desired
linear-algebra linear-transformations proof-explanation
$endgroup$
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$begingroup$
I think I got the intuition of the reasoning. Because injectivity means one-to-one, if null space is larger than ${0}$, there are more than one way to transform $V$ to ${0}$. So it is not injective.
But I don't understand the proof.
Proof:
First suppose $T$ is injective. We want to prove that null $T = {0}$. We already know that ${0} subset text{null }T$ (I understand). To prove the inclusion in the other direction (what's that mean?), suppose $v in text{null } T$. Then
$$T(v) = 0 = T(0)$$
Because $T$ is injective, the equation above implies that $v=0$. Thus we can conclude that $text{null }T = {0}$, as desired.
To prove the implication in the other direction (what's that mean?), now suppose $text{null }T = {0}$. We want to prove that $T$ is injective. To do this, suppose $u, v in V$ and $Tu = Tv$. Then
$$0 = Tu - Tv = T(u-v)$$
is this step just coming from $Tu = Tv$? $Tu - Tv = 0$
Thus $u-v$ is in null $T$, which equals to ${0}$. Hence $u-v = 0$, which implies that $u=v$. Hence $T$ is injective, as desired
linear-algebra linear-transformations proof-explanation
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think I got the intuition of the reasoning. Because injectivity means one-to-one, if null space is larger than ${0}$, there are more than one way to transform $V$ to ${0}$. So it is not injective.
But I don't understand the proof.
Proof:
First suppose $T$ is injective. We want to prove that null $T = {0}$. We already know that ${0} subset text{null }T$ (I understand). To prove the inclusion in the other direction (what's that mean?), suppose $v in text{null } T$. Then
$$T(v) = 0 = T(0)$$
Because $T$ is injective, the equation above implies that $v=0$. Thus we can conclude that $text{null }T = {0}$, as desired.
To prove the implication in the other direction (what's that mean?), now suppose $text{null }T = {0}$. We want to prove that $T$ is injective. To do this, suppose $u, v in V$ and $Tu = Tv$. Then
$$0 = Tu - Tv = T(u-v)$$
is this step just coming from $Tu = Tv$? $Tu - Tv = 0$
Thus $u-v$ is in null $T$, which equals to ${0}$. Hence $u-v = 0$, which implies that $u=v$. Hence $T$ is injective, as desired
linear-algebra linear-transformations proof-explanation
$endgroup$
I think I got the intuition of the reasoning. Because injectivity means one-to-one, if null space is larger than ${0}$, there are more than one way to transform $V$ to ${0}$. So it is not injective.
But I don't understand the proof.
Proof:
First suppose $T$ is injective. We want to prove that null $T = {0}$. We already know that ${0} subset text{null }T$ (I understand). To prove the inclusion in the other direction (what's that mean?), suppose $v in text{null } T$. Then
$$T(v) = 0 = T(0)$$
Because $T$ is injective, the equation above implies that $v=0$. Thus we can conclude that $text{null }T = {0}$, as desired.
To prove the implication in the other direction (what's that mean?), now suppose $text{null }T = {0}$. We want to prove that $T$ is injective. To do this, suppose $u, v in V$ and $Tu = Tv$. Then
$$0 = Tu - Tv = T(u-v)$$
is this step just coming from $Tu = Tv$? $Tu - Tv = 0$
Thus $u-v$ is in null $T$, which equals to ${0}$. Hence $u-v = 0$, which implies that $u=v$. Hence $T$ is injective, as desired
linear-algebra linear-transformations proof-explanation
linear-algebra linear-transformations proof-explanation
asked Jan 24 at 22:56
JOHN JOHN
4279
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:
$Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;- $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$
Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.
The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.
Provin the implication in ther direction means this:
The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
$$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$
Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:
$Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;- $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$
Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.
The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:
$Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;- $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$
Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.
The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:
$Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;- $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$
Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.
The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.
$endgroup$
The statement is$$Ttext{ is injective}iffoperatorname{null}T={0}.$$So, there are actually two things to prove:
$Ttext{ is injective}impliesoperatorname{null}T={0}$;- $operatorname{null}T={0}implies Ttext{ is injective}.$
Now, in order to prove the first statement, we have to prove that if $T$ is injective, then the sets ${0}$ and $operatorname{null}T$ are equal. But, since it is trivial that ${0}subsetoperatorname{null}T$, what remains to be proved is the opposite inclusion, which is $operatorname{null}Tsubset{0}$.
The second statement is the implication in the other direction. Finally, the equality $T(u)-T(v)=T(u-v)$ comes from the fact that the map $T$ is linear.
edited Jan 25 at 16:02
answered Jan 24 at 23:07


José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
168k23132236
168k23132236
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$begingroup$
Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.
Provin the implication in ther direction means this:
The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
$$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$
Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.
Provin the implication in ther direction means this:
The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
$$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$
Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.
Provin the implication in ther direction means this:
The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
$$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$
Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.
$endgroup$
Proving the inclusion in the other direction means proving the reverse inclusion: $ker Tsubset{0}$.
Provin the implication in ther direction means this:
The author has just proved that injectivity implies $ker T={0}$. ($Rightarrow$). Now he/she going to prove the reverse implication:
$$text{injectivity}Leftarrow ker T={0}.$$
Fianlly the step you mention comes from the hypothesis $Tu=Tv;$ AND $;$linearity of $T$: $; Tu-Tv=T(u-v)$.
answered Jan 24 at 23:08
BernardBernard
123k741116
123k741116
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