Finding out the probability of the first person to win
Two people are playing a dice, they take turns to roll a dice and if one person rolls a "1", the game ends and the person who rolls a "1" wins. If he does not roll a "1", then the game continues until one person roll a "1", what is the probability of the first person to win?
I have no idea how to calculate this.
probability
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Two people are playing a dice, they take turns to roll a dice and if one person rolls a "1", the game ends and the person who rolls a "1" wins. If he does not roll a "1", then the game continues until one person roll a "1", what is the probability of the first person to win?
I have no idea how to calculate this.
probability
Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
– Stockfish
Nov 21 '18 at 10:48
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Two people are playing a dice, they take turns to roll a dice and if one person rolls a "1", the game ends and the person who rolls a "1" wins. If he does not roll a "1", then the game continues until one person roll a "1", what is the probability of the first person to win?
I have no idea how to calculate this.
probability
Two people are playing a dice, they take turns to roll a dice and if one person rolls a "1", the game ends and the person who rolls a "1" wins. If he does not roll a "1", then the game continues until one person roll a "1", what is the probability of the first person to win?
I have no idea how to calculate this.
probability
probability
asked Nov 21 '18 at 10:35
Learning Mathematics
726
726
Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
– Stockfish
Nov 21 '18 at 10:48
add a comment |
Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
– Stockfish
Nov 21 '18 at 10:48
Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
– Stockfish
Nov 21 '18 at 10:48
Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
– Stockfish
Nov 21 '18 at 10:48
add a comment |
4 Answers
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Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
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It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.
If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$
Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.
Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$
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Using $p = 1/6$, we have
$P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
add a comment |
Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.
add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
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Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
add a comment |
Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
add a comment |
Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
edited Nov 21 '18 at 11:00
answered Nov 21 '18 at 10:54
mathnoob
1,797422
1,797422
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It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.
If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$
Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.
Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$
add a comment |
It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.
If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$
Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.
Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$
add a comment |
It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.
If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$
Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.
Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$
It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.
If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$
Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.
Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$
edited Nov 21 '18 at 11:43
answered Nov 21 '18 at 11:25


drhab
98.2k544129
98.2k544129
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Using $p = 1/6$, we have
$P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
add a comment |
Using $p = 1/6$, we have
$P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
add a comment |
Using $p = 1/6$, we have
$P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
Using $p = 1/6$, we have
$P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.
answered Nov 21 '18 at 10:57
Stockfish
52726
52726
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add a comment |
Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.
add a comment |
Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.
add a comment |
Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.
Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.
answered Nov 21 '18 at 10:57
Boshu
705315
705315
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Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
– Stockfish
Nov 21 '18 at 10:48