Finding out the probability of the first person to win












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Two people are playing a dice, they take turns to roll a dice and if one person rolls a "1", the game ends and the person who rolls a "1" wins. If he does not roll a "1", then the game continues until one person roll a "1", what is the probability of the first person to win?



I have no idea how to calculate this.










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  • Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
    – Stockfish
    Nov 21 '18 at 10:48
















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Two people are playing a dice, they take turns to roll a dice and if one person rolls a "1", the game ends and the person who rolls a "1" wins. If he does not roll a "1", then the game continues until one person roll a "1", what is the probability of the first person to win?



I have no idea how to calculate this.










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  • Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
    – Stockfish
    Nov 21 '18 at 10:48














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Two people are playing a dice, they take turns to roll a dice and if one person rolls a "1", the game ends and the person who rolls a "1" wins. If he does not roll a "1", then the game continues until one person roll a "1", what is the probability of the first person to win?



I have no idea how to calculate this.










share|cite|improve this question













Two people are playing a dice, they take turns to roll a dice and if one person rolls a "1", the game ends and the person who rolls a "1" wins. If he does not roll a "1", then the game continues until one person roll a "1", what is the probability of the first person to win?



I have no idea how to calculate this.







probability






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asked Nov 21 '18 at 10:35









Learning Mathematics

726




726












  • Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
    – Stockfish
    Nov 21 '18 at 10:48


















  • Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
    – Stockfish
    Nov 21 '18 at 10:48
















Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
– Stockfish
Nov 21 '18 at 10:48




Consider the sequence of $X_1, dots$, where $X_i$ is the $i$-th roll, $X_i=1$ if the roll is 1 and $0$ otherwise. Then the first $i$ such that $X_i$ is following a geometric distribution $Y$. If $Y$ is odd, the player who started rolling wins; if $Y$ is even, the other player wins.
– Stockfish
Nov 21 '18 at 10:48










4 Answers
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Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.






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    It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.



    If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$



    Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.





    Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$






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      Using $p = 1/6$, we have
      $P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.






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        1














        Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.






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          4 Answers
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          active

          oldest

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          4 Answers
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          active

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          3














          Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            3














            Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              3












              3








              3






              Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              Assume the dice is a fair 6 sided dice, and let's use the string with alphabet in ${1,2,3,4,5,6}$ to denote the outcome of the roll. The first person win exactly when the string representing the outcome is of the form $1$ or $ _ ,_1$ or $_,_,_,_1$ and so on where $_$ are numbers in the set ${2,3,4,5,6}$. So now, that happens with probability $frac{1}{6}+(frac{5}{6})^2frac{1}{6}+...= frac{1}{6}sum_{k=0}^infty{(frac{5}{6}})^{2k}=frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.







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              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Nov 21 '18 at 11:00

























              answered Nov 21 '18 at 10:54









              mathnoob

              1,797422




              1,797422























                  3














                  It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.



                  If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$



                  Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.





                  Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer




























                    3














                    It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.



                    If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$



                    Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.





                    Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer


























                      3












                      3








                      3






                      It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.



                      If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$



                      Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.





                      Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      It is not really necessary to apply geometric distribution together with infinite sums.



                      If $p$ denotes the probability of the first player to win then we have the equality:$$p=frac16+frac56(1-p)=1-frac56p$$leading to $$p=frac6{11}$$



                      Concerning the first player observe that by not throwing a $1$ his opponent will have probability $p$ to win so that in that case the "new" chance to win will be $1-p$.





                      Formally if $W$ denotes the event that the first player wins, and $D$ denotes then the number rolled at the first throw then:$$p=P(W)=P(D=1)P(Wmid D=1)+P(Dneq1)P(Wmid Dneq1)=frac16cdot1+frac56cdot(1-p)$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Nov 21 '18 at 11:43

























                      answered Nov 21 '18 at 11:25









                      drhab

                      98.2k544129




                      98.2k544129























                          1














                          Using $p = 1/6$, we have
                          $P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer


























                            1














                            Using $p = 1/6$, we have
                            $P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer
























                              1












                              1








                              1






                              Using $p = 1/6$, we have
                              $P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.






                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              Using $p = 1/6$, we have
                              $P($the first player wins$)$ = $sum_{i=0}^{infty} P($the first 1 is in throw $ 2i+1) = sum_{i=0}^{infty} (1-p)^{2i}p = frac{1}{6}frac{36}{11}=frac{6}{11}$.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Nov 21 '18 at 10:57









                              Stockfish

                              52726




                              52726























                                  1














                                  Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                                    1














                                    Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer
























                                      1












                                      1








                                      1






                                      Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      Notice that the game stops at the first instance of a $1$, which implies that all previous rolls must have given one of ${2,3,4,5,6}$'s. Also notice that the person who rolls first only rolls on odd instances. This means that what you need to find is the probability of the first $1$ being on an odd roll. So the first $1$ appears on one of the first, third, fifth... and so on. Note that the result is a geometric series with a ratio of $frac{25}{36}$, and the first term as $frac{1}{6}$. From here, you can just compute the infinite sum to be $frac{6}{11}$.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Nov 21 '18 at 10:57









                                      Boshu

                                      705315




                                      705315






























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