Summation of series using definite integral












4












$begingroup$


I learned that definite integral gives the signed area under a curve by dividing the curve into small rectangular strips and "making" its width shrink to zero.



Using this knowledge summation of certain series can be found. I converted definite integral in this form



$$ int_{a}^{b} f(x) , mathrm{d}x = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{b-a}{n} sum_{r=1}^{n} fleft( a + left(frac{b-a}{n}right)r right) $$



However, another equivalent form is known to exist, provided below, and I find it much more convenient to use that form. I tried to manipulate the sum to arrive at the equivalent form but so far I've not able to succeed.



$$ int_{a}^{b} f(x) , mathrm{d}x = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{n} sum_{r=g(n)}^{h(n)} fleft(frac{r}{n}right),
quad text{where } begin{cases}
lim_{ntoinfty} frac{g(n)}{n} = a, \
lim_{ntoinfty} frac{h(n)}{n} = b.
end{cases} $$



Can someone help (give me a hint perhaps) on how to convert to the second much more convenient expression.



I find second expression much more convenient because the limits of integration can be very easily found using it.



Any help will be appreciated.



EDIT: I've still not able to derive the equivalent relation mentioned above. Can someone hint me?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Hmmm.. why isn't someone responding to my question? Sorry if it sounds a bit silly question.
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Feb 4 at 9:11










  • $begingroup$
    The notation is a bit unclear to me. For the second sum to make sense, it should hold that $g(n)$ and $h(n)$ are always integers with $g(n) leq h(n)$ for any $n in mathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Berni Waterman
    Mar 5 at 21:00










  • $begingroup$
    Could you give a practical example for the second expression?
    $endgroup$
    – user
    Mar 5 at 21:07










  • $begingroup$
    @user Consider when lower index of summation is 1 and upper index is 2n. Limits on integration will be given by
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Mar 5 at 21:10










  • $begingroup$
    ...a= 1/n (n tends to infinity) = 0 and b = 2n/n (n tends to infinity) = 2
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Mar 5 at 21:11
















4












$begingroup$


I learned that definite integral gives the signed area under a curve by dividing the curve into small rectangular strips and "making" its width shrink to zero.



Using this knowledge summation of certain series can be found. I converted definite integral in this form



$$ int_{a}^{b} f(x) , mathrm{d}x = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{b-a}{n} sum_{r=1}^{n} fleft( a + left(frac{b-a}{n}right)r right) $$



However, another equivalent form is known to exist, provided below, and I find it much more convenient to use that form. I tried to manipulate the sum to arrive at the equivalent form but so far I've not able to succeed.



$$ int_{a}^{b} f(x) , mathrm{d}x = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{n} sum_{r=g(n)}^{h(n)} fleft(frac{r}{n}right),
quad text{where } begin{cases}
lim_{ntoinfty} frac{g(n)}{n} = a, \
lim_{ntoinfty} frac{h(n)}{n} = b.
end{cases} $$



Can someone help (give me a hint perhaps) on how to convert to the second much more convenient expression.



I find second expression much more convenient because the limits of integration can be very easily found using it.



Any help will be appreciated.



EDIT: I've still not able to derive the equivalent relation mentioned above. Can someone hint me?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Hmmm.. why isn't someone responding to my question? Sorry if it sounds a bit silly question.
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Feb 4 at 9:11










  • $begingroup$
    The notation is a bit unclear to me. For the second sum to make sense, it should hold that $g(n)$ and $h(n)$ are always integers with $g(n) leq h(n)$ for any $n in mathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Berni Waterman
    Mar 5 at 21:00










  • $begingroup$
    Could you give a practical example for the second expression?
    $endgroup$
    – user
    Mar 5 at 21:07










  • $begingroup$
    @user Consider when lower index of summation is 1 and upper index is 2n. Limits on integration will be given by
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Mar 5 at 21:10










  • $begingroup$
    ...a= 1/n (n tends to infinity) = 0 and b = 2n/n (n tends to infinity) = 2
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Mar 5 at 21:11














4












4








4


0



$begingroup$


I learned that definite integral gives the signed area under a curve by dividing the curve into small rectangular strips and "making" its width shrink to zero.



Using this knowledge summation of certain series can be found. I converted definite integral in this form



$$ int_{a}^{b} f(x) , mathrm{d}x = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{b-a}{n} sum_{r=1}^{n} fleft( a + left(frac{b-a}{n}right)r right) $$



However, another equivalent form is known to exist, provided below, and I find it much more convenient to use that form. I tried to manipulate the sum to arrive at the equivalent form but so far I've not able to succeed.



$$ int_{a}^{b} f(x) , mathrm{d}x = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{n} sum_{r=g(n)}^{h(n)} fleft(frac{r}{n}right),
quad text{where } begin{cases}
lim_{ntoinfty} frac{g(n)}{n} = a, \
lim_{ntoinfty} frac{h(n)}{n} = b.
end{cases} $$



Can someone help (give me a hint perhaps) on how to convert to the second much more convenient expression.



I find second expression much more convenient because the limits of integration can be very easily found using it.



Any help will be appreciated.



EDIT: I've still not able to derive the equivalent relation mentioned above. Can someone hint me?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I learned that definite integral gives the signed area under a curve by dividing the curve into small rectangular strips and "making" its width shrink to zero.



Using this knowledge summation of certain series can be found. I converted definite integral in this form



$$ int_{a}^{b} f(x) , mathrm{d}x = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{b-a}{n} sum_{r=1}^{n} fleft( a + left(frac{b-a}{n}right)r right) $$



However, another equivalent form is known to exist, provided below, and I find it much more convenient to use that form. I tried to manipulate the sum to arrive at the equivalent form but so far I've not able to succeed.



$$ int_{a}^{b} f(x) , mathrm{d}x = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{n} sum_{r=g(n)}^{h(n)} fleft(frac{r}{n}right),
quad text{where } begin{cases}
lim_{ntoinfty} frac{g(n)}{n} = a, \
lim_{ntoinfty} frac{h(n)}{n} = b.
end{cases} $$



Can someone help (give me a hint perhaps) on how to convert to the second much more convenient expression.



I find second expression much more convenient because the limits of integration can be very easily found using it.



Any help will be appreciated.



EDIT: I've still not able to derive the equivalent relation mentioned above. Can someone hint me?







calculus integration limits definite-integrals summation






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Mar 5 at 20:29







Shivansh J

















asked Feb 3 at 6:10









Shivansh JShivansh J

677




677












  • $begingroup$
    Hmmm.. why isn't someone responding to my question? Sorry if it sounds a bit silly question.
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Feb 4 at 9:11










  • $begingroup$
    The notation is a bit unclear to me. For the second sum to make sense, it should hold that $g(n)$ and $h(n)$ are always integers with $g(n) leq h(n)$ for any $n in mathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Berni Waterman
    Mar 5 at 21:00










  • $begingroup$
    Could you give a practical example for the second expression?
    $endgroup$
    – user
    Mar 5 at 21:07










  • $begingroup$
    @user Consider when lower index of summation is 1 and upper index is 2n. Limits on integration will be given by
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Mar 5 at 21:10










  • $begingroup$
    ...a= 1/n (n tends to infinity) = 0 and b = 2n/n (n tends to infinity) = 2
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Mar 5 at 21:11


















  • $begingroup$
    Hmmm.. why isn't someone responding to my question? Sorry if it sounds a bit silly question.
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Feb 4 at 9:11










  • $begingroup$
    The notation is a bit unclear to me. For the second sum to make sense, it should hold that $g(n)$ and $h(n)$ are always integers with $g(n) leq h(n)$ for any $n in mathbb N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Berni Waterman
    Mar 5 at 21:00










  • $begingroup$
    Could you give a practical example for the second expression?
    $endgroup$
    – user
    Mar 5 at 21:07










  • $begingroup$
    @user Consider when lower index of summation is 1 and upper index is 2n. Limits on integration will be given by
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Mar 5 at 21:10










  • $begingroup$
    ...a= 1/n (n tends to infinity) = 0 and b = 2n/n (n tends to infinity) = 2
    $endgroup$
    – Shivansh J
    Mar 5 at 21:11
















$begingroup$
Hmmm.. why isn't someone responding to my question? Sorry if it sounds a bit silly question.
$endgroup$
– Shivansh J
Feb 4 at 9:11




$begingroup$
Hmmm.. why isn't someone responding to my question? Sorry if it sounds a bit silly question.
$endgroup$
– Shivansh J
Feb 4 at 9:11












$begingroup$
The notation is a bit unclear to me. For the second sum to make sense, it should hold that $g(n)$ and $h(n)$ are always integers with $g(n) leq h(n)$ for any $n in mathbb N$.
$endgroup$
– Berni Waterman
Mar 5 at 21:00




$begingroup$
The notation is a bit unclear to me. For the second sum to make sense, it should hold that $g(n)$ and $h(n)$ are always integers with $g(n) leq h(n)$ for any $n in mathbb N$.
$endgroup$
– Berni Waterman
Mar 5 at 21:00












$begingroup$
Could you give a practical example for the second expression?
$endgroup$
– user
Mar 5 at 21:07




$begingroup$
Could you give a practical example for the second expression?
$endgroup$
– user
Mar 5 at 21:07












$begingroup$
@user Consider when lower index of summation is 1 and upper index is 2n. Limits on integration will be given by
$endgroup$
– Shivansh J
Mar 5 at 21:10




$begingroup$
@user Consider when lower index of summation is 1 and upper index is 2n. Limits on integration will be given by
$endgroup$
– Shivansh J
Mar 5 at 21:10












$begingroup$
...a= 1/n (n tends to infinity) = 0 and b = 2n/n (n tends to infinity) = 2
$endgroup$
– Shivansh J
Mar 5 at 21:11




$begingroup$
...a= 1/n (n tends to infinity) = 0 and b = 2n/n (n tends to infinity) = 2
$endgroup$
– Shivansh J
Mar 5 at 21:11










1 Answer
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It more make sense that we focus on the behavior of $$frac1nsum_{r=h(n)}^{g(n)}f(r/n)$$
as $nto infty$. Think of the $1/n$ as the width of each subinterval of $[a,b]$, and think of $r/n$ as $x$-values in each subinterval. As $ntoinfty$, each subinterval approaches a single point, namely $lim_{ntoinfty}r/n$. So it's just a sum of $text{height}timestext{width}$.






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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    It more make sense that we focus on the behavior of $$frac1nsum_{r=h(n)}^{g(n)}f(r/n)$$
    as $nto infty$. Think of the $1/n$ as the width of each subinterval of $[a,b]$, and think of $r/n$ as $x$-values in each subinterval. As $ntoinfty$, each subinterval approaches a single point, namely $lim_{ntoinfty}r/n$. So it's just a sum of $text{height}timestext{width}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      It more make sense that we focus on the behavior of $$frac1nsum_{r=h(n)}^{g(n)}f(r/n)$$
      as $nto infty$. Think of the $1/n$ as the width of each subinterval of $[a,b]$, and think of $r/n$ as $x$-values in each subinterval. As $ntoinfty$, each subinterval approaches a single point, namely $lim_{ntoinfty}r/n$. So it's just a sum of $text{height}timestext{width}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        It more make sense that we focus on the behavior of $$frac1nsum_{r=h(n)}^{g(n)}f(r/n)$$
        as $nto infty$. Think of the $1/n$ as the width of each subinterval of $[a,b]$, and think of $r/n$ as $x$-values in each subinterval. As $ntoinfty$, each subinterval approaches a single point, namely $lim_{ntoinfty}r/n$. So it's just a sum of $text{height}timestext{width}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        It more make sense that we focus on the behavior of $$frac1nsum_{r=h(n)}^{g(n)}f(r/n)$$
        as $nto infty$. Think of the $1/n$ as the width of each subinterval of $[a,b]$, and think of $r/n$ as $x$-values in each subinterval. As $ntoinfty$, each subinterval approaches a single point, namely $lim_{ntoinfty}r/n$. So it's just a sum of $text{height}timestext{width}$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Mar 19 at 18:15









        clathratusclathratus

        5,1441439




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