Differentiability implies Lipschitz continuity












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Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous function and suppose $f$ is differentiable at $x_0in [0,1]$. Is it true that there exists $L>0$ such that $lvert f(x)-f(x_0)lvertleq Llvert x-x_0lvert$?




I know that local continuously differentiable implies local Lipschitz continuity. Is this still true in the case given above?










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    $begingroup$
    This is not a duplicate. This question asks about a continuous function on a compact set. The cited question does not specify either continuity or compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – robjohn
    May 19 '13 at 17:43
















8












$begingroup$



Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous function and suppose $f$ is differentiable at $x_0in [0,1]$. Is it true that there exists $L>0$ such that $lvert f(x)-f(x_0)lvertleq Llvert x-x_0lvert$?




I know that local continuously differentiable implies local Lipschitz continuity. Is this still true in the case given above?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is not a duplicate. This question asks about a continuous function on a compact set. The cited question does not specify either continuity or compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – robjohn
    May 19 '13 at 17:43














8












8








8


4



$begingroup$



Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous function and suppose $f$ is differentiable at $x_0in [0,1]$. Is it true that there exists $L>0$ such that $lvert f(x)-f(x_0)lvertleq Llvert x-x_0lvert$?




I know that local continuously differentiable implies local Lipschitz continuity. Is this still true in the case given above?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R}$ be a continuous function and suppose $f$ is differentiable at $x_0in [0,1]$. Is it true that there exists $L>0$ such that $lvert f(x)-f(x_0)lvertleq Llvert x-x_0lvert$?




I know that local continuously differentiable implies local Lipschitz continuity. Is this still true in the case given above?







real-analysis functional-analysis






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asked May 19 '13 at 11:21









JulianJulian

1,04611025




1,04611025








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is not a duplicate. This question asks about a continuous function on a compact set. The cited question does not specify either continuity or compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – robjohn
    May 19 '13 at 17:43














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This is not a duplicate. This question asks about a continuous function on a compact set. The cited question does not specify either continuity or compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – robjohn
    May 19 '13 at 17:43








1




1




$begingroup$
This is not a duplicate. This question asks about a continuous function on a compact set. The cited question does not specify either continuity or compactness.
$endgroup$
– robjohn
May 19 '13 at 17:43




$begingroup$
This is not a duplicate. This question asks about a continuous function on a compact set. The cited question does not specify either continuity or compactness.
$endgroup$
– robjohn
May 19 '13 at 17:43










2 Answers
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active

oldest

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$begingroup$

From differentiability at $x_0$, you will find an $L_1$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_1| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| < delta$. Since $f$ is continuous on a compact set, $|f(x)|_{infty} < infty$. This will give you an $L_2$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_2| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| geq delta$. Take $L = max {L_1, L_2}$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Follow the link above: you need locally bounded derivative (which may be implied in your answer, but deserves mention).
    $endgroup$
    – gnometorule
    May 19 '13 at 12:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @gnometorule I didn't use that. For what part of my proof do I need that? Isn't that counterexample for global Lipschitz continuity? Here it is just one point.
    $endgroup$
    – N.U.
    May 19 '13 at 12:15



















1












$begingroup$

It is not true as this example from Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lipschitz_continuity) proves:



Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R},, f(x)=x^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x}),,x>0,, f(0)=0$. Then it's derivate outside $0$ is $f^`(x)=frac{3}{2}x^{frac{1}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x})-x^{-frac{1}{2}}cos(frac{1}{x})$ and note that $limsup_{xdownarrow 0}|f^´(x)|=infty$.



Furthermore $f$ is differentiable in $0$ since
begin{equation}
lim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvertfrac{h^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{h})}{h}rightrvertleqlim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvert h^{frac{1}{2}}rightrvert=0 , ,
end{equation}

so $f$ actually meets your requirements.



But the unbounded derivative outside $0$ gives us that there is no $epsilon > 0$ and $Lgeq0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq L|x-y|, forall, x,,yin[0,epsilon]$.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






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    5












    $begingroup$

    From differentiability at $x_0$, you will find an $L_1$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_1| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| < delta$. Since $f$ is continuous on a compact set, $|f(x)|_{infty} < infty$. This will give you an $L_2$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_2| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| geq delta$. Take $L = max {L_1, L_2}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Follow the link above: you need locally bounded derivative (which may be implied in your answer, but deserves mention).
      $endgroup$
      – gnometorule
      May 19 '13 at 12:12






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @gnometorule I didn't use that. For what part of my proof do I need that? Isn't that counterexample for global Lipschitz continuity? Here it is just one point.
      $endgroup$
      – N.U.
      May 19 '13 at 12:15
















    5












    $begingroup$

    From differentiability at $x_0$, you will find an $L_1$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_1| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| < delta$. Since $f$ is continuous on a compact set, $|f(x)|_{infty} < infty$. This will give you an $L_2$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_2| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| geq delta$. Take $L = max {L_1, L_2}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Follow the link above: you need locally bounded derivative (which may be implied in your answer, but deserves mention).
      $endgroup$
      – gnometorule
      May 19 '13 at 12:12






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @gnometorule I didn't use that. For what part of my proof do I need that? Isn't that counterexample for global Lipschitz continuity? Here it is just one point.
      $endgroup$
      – N.U.
      May 19 '13 at 12:15














    5












    5








    5





    $begingroup$

    From differentiability at $x_0$, you will find an $L_1$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_1| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| < delta$. Since $f$ is continuous on a compact set, $|f(x)|_{infty} < infty$. This will give you an $L_2$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_2| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| geq delta$. Take $L = max {L_1, L_2}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    From differentiability at $x_0$, you will find an $L_1$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_1| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| < delta$. Since $f$ is continuous on a compact set, $|f(x)|_{infty} < infty$. This will give you an $L_2$ such that $| f(x)-f(x_0) |leq L_2| x-x_0|$ for $|x-x_0| geq delta$. Take $L = max {L_1, L_2}$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered May 19 '13 at 12:07









    N.U.N.U.

    2,54821426




    2,54821426












    • $begingroup$
      Follow the link above: you need locally bounded derivative (which may be implied in your answer, but deserves mention).
      $endgroup$
      – gnometorule
      May 19 '13 at 12:12






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @gnometorule I didn't use that. For what part of my proof do I need that? Isn't that counterexample for global Lipschitz continuity? Here it is just one point.
      $endgroup$
      – N.U.
      May 19 '13 at 12:15


















    • $begingroup$
      Follow the link above: you need locally bounded derivative (which may be implied in your answer, but deserves mention).
      $endgroup$
      – gnometorule
      May 19 '13 at 12:12






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @gnometorule I didn't use that. For what part of my proof do I need that? Isn't that counterexample for global Lipschitz continuity? Here it is just one point.
      $endgroup$
      – N.U.
      May 19 '13 at 12:15
















    $begingroup$
    Follow the link above: you need locally bounded derivative (which may be implied in your answer, but deserves mention).
    $endgroup$
    – gnometorule
    May 19 '13 at 12:12




    $begingroup$
    Follow the link above: you need locally bounded derivative (which may be implied in your answer, but deserves mention).
    $endgroup$
    – gnometorule
    May 19 '13 at 12:12




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    @gnometorule I didn't use that. For what part of my proof do I need that? Isn't that counterexample for global Lipschitz continuity? Here it is just one point.
    $endgroup$
    – N.U.
    May 19 '13 at 12:15




    $begingroup$
    @gnometorule I didn't use that. For what part of my proof do I need that? Isn't that counterexample for global Lipschitz continuity? Here it is just one point.
    $endgroup$
    – N.U.
    May 19 '13 at 12:15











    1












    $begingroup$

    It is not true as this example from Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lipschitz_continuity) proves:



    Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R},, f(x)=x^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x}),,x>0,, f(0)=0$. Then it's derivate outside $0$ is $f^`(x)=frac{3}{2}x^{frac{1}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x})-x^{-frac{1}{2}}cos(frac{1}{x})$ and note that $limsup_{xdownarrow 0}|f^´(x)|=infty$.



    Furthermore $f$ is differentiable in $0$ since
    begin{equation}
    lim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvertfrac{h^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{h})}{h}rightrvertleqlim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvert h^{frac{1}{2}}rightrvert=0 , ,
    end{equation}

    so $f$ actually meets your requirements.



    But the unbounded derivative outside $0$ gives us that there is no $epsilon > 0$ and $Lgeq0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq L|x-y|, forall, x,,yin[0,epsilon]$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      It is not true as this example from Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lipschitz_continuity) proves:



      Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R},, f(x)=x^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x}),,x>0,, f(0)=0$. Then it's derivate outside $0$ is $f^`(x)=frac{3}{2}x^{frac{1}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x})-x^{-frac{1}{2}}cos(frac{1}{x})$ and note that $limsup_{xdownarrow 0}|f^´(x)|=infty$.



      Furthermore $f$ is differentiable in $0$ since
      begin{equation}
      lim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvertfrac{h^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{h})}{h}rightrvertleqlim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvert h^{frac{1}{2}}rightrvert=0 , ,
      end{equation}

      so $f$ actually meets your requirements.



      But the unbounded derivative outside $0$ gives us that there is no $epsilon > 0$ and $Lgeq0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq L|x-y|, forall, x,,yin[0,epsilon]$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        It is not true as this example from Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lipschitz_continuity) proves:



        Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R},, f(x)=x^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x}),,x>0,, f(0)=0$. Then it's derivate outside $0$ is $f^`(x)=frac{3}{2}x^{frac{1}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x})-x^{-frac{1}{2}}cos(frac{1}{x})$ and note that $limsup_{xdownarrow 0}|f^´(x)|=infty$.



        Furthermore $f$ is differentiable in $0$ since
        begin{equation}
        lim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvertfrac{h^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{h})}{h}rightrvertleqlim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvert h^{frac{1}{2}}rightrvert=0 , ,
        end{equation}

        so $f$ actually meets your requirements.



        But the unbounded derivative outside $0$ gives us that there is no $epsilon > 0$ and $Lgeq0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq L|x-y|, forall, x,,yin[0,epsilon]$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        It is not true as this example from Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lipschitz_continuity) proves:



        Let $f:[0,1]tomathbb{R},, f(x)=x^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x}),,x>0,, f(0)=0$. Then it's derivate outside $0$ is $f^`(x)=frac{3}{2}x^{frac{1}{2}}sin(frac{1}{x})-x^{-frac{1}{2}}cos(frac{1}{x})$ and note that $limsup_{xdownarrow 0}|f^´(x)|=infty$.



        Furthermore $f$ is differentiable in $0$ since
        begin{equation}
        lim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvertfrac{h^{frac{3}{2}}sin(frac{1}{h})}{h}rightrvertleqlim_{hdownarrow 0}leftlvert h^{frac{1}{2}}rightrvert=0 , ,
        end{equation}

        so $f$ actually meets your requirements.



        But the unbounded derivative outside $0$ gives us that there is no $epsilon > 0$ and $Lgeq0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq L|x-y|, forall, x,,yin[0,epsilon]$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 18 at 17:41









        mortenmcfishmortenmcfish

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        905






























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