How Does $AB{sim} C + {sim}ABC + {sim} A {sim}B{sim} C$ Turn into $(A+C+{sim}B)(B+{sim}A)(B+{sim} C)({sim}...












1












$begingroup$


I'm trying to figure out this Boolean algebra question and I cannot for the life of me figure it out. I know that the answer is $(A+C+{sim} B)(B+{sim}A)(B+{sim} C)({sim} A+ {sim} C)$ but I can't find the steps to take it there from the original question of AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C.



Figured I would see if any of you knew.



Thanks










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    There are only eight possible values for (A, B, C). Check all of them. I don't really understand what this question is asking for; if the two expressions are equal for all possible values, then they're equal for all possible values; that's the only thing you need to check to show equality.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 18 at 23:21








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is your question "what series of algebraic transformations transforms the first expression into the second?" If so, what techniques have you tried already?
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 18 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, Eric. I have to prove that they are equal algebraically. I have tried factoring out different values among other things but that didn't seem to simplify it, I've used everything I can think of but haven't been able to crack it. any help would be greatly appreciated.
    $endgroup$
    – Adam
    Jan 18 at 23:34










  • $begingroup$
    Got it. Offhand I don't see it, but I'll play around with it for a bit.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 19 at 0:19
















1












$begingroup$


I'm trying to figure out this Boolean algebra question and I cannot for the life of me figure it out. I know that the answer is $(A+C+{sim} B)(B+{sim}A)(B+{sim} C)({sim} A+ {sim} C)$ but I can't find the steps to take it there from the original question of AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C.



Figured I would see if any of you knew.



Thanks










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    There are only eight possible values for (A, B, C). Check all of them. I don't really understand what this question is asking for; if the two expressions are equal for all possible values, then they're equal for all possible values; that's the only thing you need to check to show equality.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 18 at 23:21








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is your question "what series of algebraic transformations transforms the first expression into the second?" If so, what techniques have you tried already?
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 18 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, Eric. I have to prove that they are equal algebraically. I have tried factoring out different values among other things but that didn't seem to simplify it, I've used everything I can think of but haven't been able to crack it. any help would be greatly appreciated.
    $endgroup$
    – Adam
    Jan 18 at 23:34










  • $begingroup$
    Got it. Offhand I don't see it, but I'll play around with it for a bit.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 19 at 0:19














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I'm trying to figure out this Boolean algebra question and I cannot for the life of me figure it out. I know that the answer is $(A+C+{sim} B)(B+{sim}A)(B+{sim} C)({sim} A+ {sim} C)$ but I can't find the steps to take it there from the original question of AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C.



Figured I would see if any of you knew.



Thanks










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm trying to figure out this Boolean algebra question and I cannot for the life of me figure it out. I know that the answer is $(A+C+{sim} B)(B+{sim}A)(B+{sim} C)({sim} A+ {sim} C)$ but I can't find the steps to take it there from the original question of AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C.



Figured I would see if any of you knew.



Thanks







logic propositional-calculus boolean-algebra






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 19 at 3:19







Adam

















asked Jan 18 at 23:18









AdamAdam

63




63












  • $begingroup$
    There are only eight possible values for (A, B, C). Check all of them. I don't really understand what this question is asking for; if the two expressions are equal for all possible values, then they're equal for all possible values; that's the only thing you need to check to show equality.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 18 at 23:21








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is your question "what series of algebraic transformations transforms the first expression into the second?" If so, what techniques have you tried already?
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 18 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, Eric. I have to prove that they are equal algebraically. I have tried factoring out different values among other things but that didn't seem to simplify it, I've used everything I can think of but haven't been able to crack it. any help would be greatly appreciated.
    $endgroup$
    – Adam
    Jan 18 at 23:34










  • $begingroup$
    Got it. Offhand I don't see it, but I'll play around with it for a bit.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 19 at 0:19


















  • $begingroup$
    There are only eight possible values for (A, B, C). Check all of them. I don't really understand what this question is asking for; if the two expressions are equal for all possible values, then they're equal for all possible values; that's the only thing you need to check to show equality.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 18 at 23:21








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is your question "what series of algebraic transformations transforms the first expression into the second?" If so, what techniques have you tried already?
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 18 at 23:27










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, Eric. I have to prove that they are equal algebraically. I have tried factoring out different values among other things but that didn't seem to simplify it, I've used everything I can think of but haven't been able to crack it. any help would be greatly appreciated.
    $endgroup$
    – Adam
    Jan 18 at 23:34










  • $begingroup$
    Got it. Offhand I don't see it, but I'll play around with it for a bit.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Lippert
    Jan 19 at 0:19
















$begingroup$
There are only eight possible values for (A, B, C). Check all of them. I don't really understand what this question is asking for; if the two expressions are equal for all possible values, then they're equal for all possible values; that's the only thing you need to check to show equality.
$endgroup$
– Eric Lippert
Jan 18 at 23:21






$begingroup$
There are only eight possible values for (A, B, C). Check all of them. I don't really understand what this question is asking for; if the two expressions are equal for all possible values, then they're equal for all possible values; that's the only thing you need to check to show equality.
$endgroup$
– Eric Lippert
Jan 18 at 23:21






1




1




$begingroup$
Is your question "what series of algebraic transformations transforms the first expression into the second?" If so, what techniques have you tried already?
$endgroup$
– Eric Lippert
Jan 18 at 23:27




$begingroup$
Is your question "what series of algebraic transformations transforms the first expression into the second?" If so, what techniques have you tried already?
$endgroup$
– Eric Lippert
Jan 18 at 23:27












$begingroup$
Yes, Eric. I have to prove that they are equal algebraically. I have tried factoring out different values among other things but that didn't seem to simplify it, I've used everything I can think of but haven't been able to crack it. any help would be greatly appreciated.
$endgroup$
– Adam
Jan 18 at 23:34




$begingroup$
Yes, Eric. I have to prove that they are equal algebraically. I have tried factoring out different values among other things but that didn't seem to simplify it, I've used everything I can think of but haven't been able to crack it. any help would be greatly appreciated.
$endgroup$
– Adam
Jan 18 at 23:34












$begingroup$
Got it. Offhand I don't see it, but I'll play around with it for a bit.
$endgroup$
– Eric Lippert
Jan 19 at 0:19




$begingroup$
Got it. Offhand I don't see it, but I'll play around with it for a bit.
$endgroup$
– Eric Lippert
Jan 19 at 0:19










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Attack the problem from the right side.



The distributive law is $(X + Y) Z = XZ + YZ$



Apply this law to $(A+C+{sim}B)(B+∼A)(B+{sim}C)(∼A+{sim}C)$ until you can no longer. You will end up with a very long expression of the form $ABB{sim}A + A{sim}AB{sim}A + ... + {sim}B{sim}A{sim}C{sim}C$



Then simplify that using the laws:




  • $X{sim}X = 0$

  • $X + X = X$

  • $XX = X$

  • $0 + X = X$

  • $0 X = 0$

  • $XY = YX$

  • $X + Y = Y + X$


and what will come out the other end is the left expression.



If you want to go from the left expression to the right expression, well, now you've got a set of steps that goes from right to left, so just reverse it.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Do you remember FOIL from algebra when dealing with numbers? It's that:



    $$(a+b)(c+d)=ac+ad+bc+bd$$



    Well, the same holds in a Boolean algebra. Moreover, it generalizes:



    $$(a+b)(c+d+e)=ac+ad+ae+bc+bd+be$$



    See how that works? You just multiply one variable from the one term with each one of the variables from the other term.



    Notice how we can apply this to the first two terms of your RHS (right hand side):



    $$(A + C +B')(B+A')=AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



    (p.s. when working with $+$ and $cdot$, I much prefer working with $P'$ for negation rather than ~)



    Now, as Eric indicated, at this point you can simplify:



    $$AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



    $$=AB+0+CB+CA'+0+
    B'A'$$



    $$=AB+CB+CA'+B'A'$$



    Ok, now multiply this with $B+C'$, again canceling any term where you get a variable and its negation ... and then with $A'+C'$



    Now, it also holds that:



    $$(a+b)(c+d)(e+f)=ace+acf+ade+adf+bce+bcf+bde+bdf$$



    Again, see how that works? You multiply each one variable from each one of the terms with each other: you get each possible combination.



    So, you could have done something like this in one big ass huge step as well, starting with your RHS: you would have gotten $3cdot 2cdot 2 cdot 2=24$ terms .... but all that would simplify to just the three terms from your LHS.



    Now, you asked whether you couldn't start with the LHS and end up with the HS. Well, first of all, if you can figure out how to go from the RHS to the LHS, then you can just reverse that process to go from LHS to RHS, since they are all equivalences.



    However, you can also do this. As it turns out, in Boolean algebra it also holds that:



    $$ab+cd=(a+c)(a+d)(b+c)(b+d)$$



    This is a little less intuitive, because this of course isn't true for numbers (which is why both Eric and I recommended going from RHS to LHS), but again, in a boolean algebra it does hold true, and so you could start with your LHS and do this:



    $$ABC'+A'BC+A'B'C'=(A+A'+A')(A+A'+B')(A+A'+C')(A+B+A) ....$$



    And so now you would have gotten $3 cdot 3 cdot 3 =27$ terms, but this time you have that $A + A'=1$, and so any term with a variable and its negation disappears ... and you should end up with just the $4$ terms of your RHS.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for the response Bram I really appreciate it. I need to go the opposite way though. (A+C+∼B)(B+∼A)(B+∼C)(∼A+∼C) is the answer. I need to find how AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C Equals it. I may have phrased the question badly.
      $endgroup$
      – Adam
      Jan 19 at 3:18








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @Adam: This is the same technique I suggested in my answer. It doesn't matter what direction you start from. If you're trying to show that X = Y, you can manipulate Y to equal X, or X to equal Y. All the operations are reversible; that's a fundamental property of equality. If you're required to show it in one direction, you can literally just write your equalities starting from the bottom of the page and moving up, instead of starting from the top and moving down!
      $endgroup$
      – Eric Lippert
      Jan 19 at 4:28












    • $begingroup$
      @Adam As Eric says, it doesn't matter which side you start: since every step is an equivalence, you can always reverse direction when you are all done. But, let me add something to my answer that shows you can start from the left as well.
      $endgroup$
      – Bram28
      Jan 19 at 13:00










    • $begingroup$
      @EricLippert Thanks Eric!
      $endgroup$
      – Bram28
      Jan 19 at 13:25











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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

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    1












    $begingroup$

    Attack the problem from the right side.



    The distributive law is $(X + Y) Z = XZ + YZ$



    Apply this law to $(A+C+{sim}B)(B+∼A)(B+{sim}C)(∼A+{sim}C)$ until you can no longer. You will end up with a very long expression of the form $ABB{sim}A + A{sim}AB{sim}A + ... + {sim}B{sim}A{sim}C{sim}C$



    Then simplify that using the laws:




    • $X{sim}X = 0$

    • $X + X = X$

    • $XX = X$

    • $0 + X = X$

    • $0 X = 0$

    • $XY = YX$

    • $X + Y = Y + X$


    and what will come out the other end is the left expression.



    If you want to go from the left expression to the right expression, well, now you've got a set of steps that goes from right to left, so just reverse it.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Attack the problem from the right side.



      The distributive law is $(X + Y) Z = XZ + YZ$



      Apply this law to $(A+C+{sim}B)(B+∼A)(B+{sim}C)(∼A+{sim}C)$ until you can no longer. You will end up with a very long expression of the form $ABB{sim}A + A{sim}AB{sim}A + ... + {sim}B{sim}A{sim}C{sim}C$



      Then simplify that using the laws:




      • $X{sim}X = 0$

      • $X + X = X$

      • $XX = X$

      • $0 + X = X$

      • $0 X = 0$

      • $XY = YX$

      • $X + Y = Y + X$


      and what will come out the other end is the left expression.



      If you want to go from the left expression to the right expression, well, now you've got a set of steps that goes from right to left, so just reverse it.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Attack the problem from the right side.



        The distributive law is $(X + Y) Z = XZ + YZ$



        Apply this law to $(A+C+{sim}B)(B+∼A)(B+{sim}C)(∼A+{sim}C)$ until you can no longer. You will end up with a very long expression of the form $ABB{sim}A + A{sim}AB{sim}A + ... + {sim}B{sim}A{sim}C{sim}C$



        Then simplify that using the laws:




        • $X{sim}X = 0$

        • $X + X = X$

        • $XX = X$

        • $0 + X = X$

        • $0 X = 0$

        • $XY = YX$

        • $X + Y = Y + X$


        and what will come out the other end is the left expression.



        If you want to go from the left expression to the right expression, well, now you've got a set of steps that goes from right to left, so just reverse it.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Attack the problem from the right side.



        The distributive law is $(X + Y) Z = XZ + YZ$



        Apply this law to $(A+C+{sim}B)(B+∼A)(B+{sim}C)(∼A+{sim}C)$ until you can no longer. You will end up with a very long expression of the form $ABB{sim}A + A{sim}AB{sim}A + ... + {sim}B{sim}A{sim}C{sim}C$



        Then simplify that using the laws:




        • $X{sim}X = 0$

        • $X + X = X$

        • $XX = X$

        • $0 + X = X$

        • $0 X = 0$

        • $XY = YX$

        • $X + Y = Y + X$


        and what will come out the other end is the left expression.



        If you want to go from the left expression to the right expression, well, now you've got a set of steps that goes from right to left, so just reverse it.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 19 at 0:54

























        answered Jan 19 at 0:49









        Eric LippertEric Lippert

        3,2111418




        3,2111418























            0












            $begingroup$

            Do you remember FOIL from algebra when dealing with numbers? It's that:



            $$(a+b)(c+d)=ac+ad+bc+bd$$



            Well, the same holds in a Boolean algebra. Moreover, it generalizes:



            $$(a+b)(c+d+e)=ac+ad+ae+bc+bd+be$$



            See how that works? You just multiply one variable from the one term with each one of the variables from the other term.



            Notice how we can apply this to the first two terms of your RHS (right hand side):



            $$(A + C +B')(B+A')=AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



            (p.s. when working with $+$ and $cdot$, I much prefer working with $P'$ for negation rather than ~)



            Now, as Eric indicated, at this point you can simplify:



            $$AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



            $$=AB+0+CB+CA'+0+
            B'A'$$



            $$=AB+CB+CA'+B'A'$$



            Ok, now multiply this with $B+C'$, again canceling any term where you get a variable and its negation ... and then with $A'+C'$



            Now, it also holds that:



            $$(a+b)(c+d)(e+f)=ace+acf+ade+adf+bce+bcf+bde+bdf$$



            Again, see how that works? You multiply each one variable from each one of the terms with each other: you get each possible combination.



            So, you could have done something like this in one big ass huge step as well, starting with your RHS: you would have gotten $3cdot 2cdot 2 cdot 2=24$ terms .... but all that would simplify to just the three terms from your LHS.



            Now, you asked whether you couldn't start with the LHS and end up with the HS. Well, first of all, if you can figure out how to go from the RHS to the LHS, then you can just reverse that process to go from LHS to RHS, since they are all equivalences.



            However, you can also do this. As it turns out, in Boolean algebra it also holds that:



            $$ab+cd=(a+c)(a+d)(b+c)(b+d)$$



            This is a little less intuitive, because this of course isn't true for numbers (which is why both Eric and I recommended going from RHS to LHS), but again, in a boolean algebra it does hold true, and so you could start with your LHS and do this:



            $$ABC'+A'BC+A'B'C'=(A+A'+A')(A+A'+B')(A+A'+C')(A+B+A) ....$$



            And so now you would have gotten $3 cdot 3 cdot 3 =27$ terms, but this time you have that $A + A'=1$, and so any term with a variable and its negation disappears ... and you should end up with just the $4$ terms of your RHS.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the response Bram I really appreciate it. I need to go the opposite way though. (A+C+∼B)(B+∼A)(B+∼C)(∼A+∼C) is the answer. I need to find how AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C Equals it. I may have phrased the question badly.
              $endgroup$
              – Adam
              Jan 19 at 3:18








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Adam: This is the same technique I suggested in my answer. It doesn't matter what direction you start from. If you're trying to show that X = Y, you can manipulate Y to equal X, or X to equal Y. All the operations are reversible; that's a fundamental property of equality. If you're required to show it in one direction, you can literally just write your equalities starting from the bottom of the page and moving up, instead of starting from the top and moving down!
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Lippert
              Jan 19 at 4:28












            • $begingroup$
              @Adam As Eric says, it doesn't matter which side you start: since every step is an equivalence, you can always reverse direction when you are all done. But, let me add something to my answer that shows you can start from the left as well.
              $endgroup$
              – Bram28
              Jan 19 at 13:00










            • $begingroup$
              @EricLippert Thanks Eric!
              $endgroup$
              – Bram28
              Jan 19 at 13:25
















            0












            $begingroup$

            Do you remember FOIL from algebra when dealing with numbers? It's that:



            $$(a+b)(c+d)=ac+ad+bc+bd$$



            Well, the same holds in a Boolean algebra. Moreover, it generalizes:



            $$(a+b)(c+d+e)=ac+ad+ae+bc+bd+be$$



            See how that works? You just multiply one variable from the one term with each one of the variables from the other term.



            Notice how we can apply this to the first two terms of your RHS (right hand side):



            $$(A + C +B')(B+A')=AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



            (p.s. when working with $+$ and $cdot$, I much prefer working with $P'$ for negation rather than ~)



            Now, as Eric indicated, at this point you can simplify:



            $$AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



            $$=AB+0+CB+CA'+0+
            B'A'$$



            $$=AB+CB+CA'+B'A'$$



            Ok, now multiply this with $B+C'$, again canceling any term where you get a variable and its negation ... and then with $A'+C'$



            Now, it also holds that:



            $$(a+b)(c+d)(e+f)=ace+acf+ade+adf+bce+bcf+bde+bdf$$



            Again, see how that works? You multiply each one variable from each one of the terms with each other: you get each possible combination.



            So, you could have done something like this in one big ass huge step as well, starting with your RHS: you would have gotten $3cdot 2cdot 2 cdot 2=24$ terms .... but all that would simplify to just the three terms from your LHS.



            Now, you asked whether you couldn't start with the LHS and end up with the HS. Well, first of all, if you can figure out how to go from the RHS to the LHS, then you can just reverse that process to go from LHS to RHS, since they are all equivalences.



            However, you can also do this. As it turns out, in Boolean algebra it also holds that:



            $$ab+cd=(a+c)(a+d)(b+c)(b+d)$$



            This is a little less intuitive, because this of course isn't true for numbers (which is why both Eric and I recommended going from RHS to LHS), but again, in a boolean algebra it does hold true, and so you could start with your LHS and do this:



            $$ABC'+A'BC+A'B'C'=(A+A'+A')(A+A'+B')(A+A'+C')(A+B+A) ....$$



            And so now you would have gotten $3 cdot 3 cdot 3 =27$ terms, but this time you have that $A + A'=1$, and so any term with a variable and its negation disappears ... and you should end up with just the $4$ terms of your RHS.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the response Bram I really appreciate it. I need to go the opposite way though. (A+C+∼B)(B+∼A)(B+∼C)(∼A+∼C) is the answer. I need to find how AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C Equals it. I may have phrased the question badly.
              $endgroup$
              – Adam
              Jan 19 at 3:18








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Adam: This is the same technique I suggested in my answer. It doesn't matter what direction you start from. If you're trying to show that X = Y, you can manipulate Y to equal X, or X to equal Y. All the operations are reversible; that's a fundamental property of equality. If you're required to show it in one direction, you can literally just write your equalities starting from the bottom of the page and moving up, instead of starting from the top and moving down!
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Lippert
              Jan 19 at 4:28












            • $begingroup$
              @Adam As Eric says, it doesn't matter which side you start: since every step is an equivalence, you can always reverse direction when you are all done. But, let me add something to my answer that shows you can start from the left as well.
              $endgroup$
              – Bram28
              Jan 19 at 13:00










            • $begingroup$
              @EricLippert Thanks Eric!
              $endgroup$
              – Bram28
              Jan 19 at 13:25














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Do you remember FOIL from algebra when dealing with numbers? It's that:



            $$(a+b)(c+d)=ac+ad+bc+bd$$



            Well, the same holds in a Boolean algebra. Moreover, it generalizes:



            $$(a+b)(c+d+e)=ac+ad+ae+bc+bd+be$$



            See how that works? You just multiply one variable from the one term with each one of the variables from the other term.



            Notice how we can apply this to the first two terms of your RHS (right hand side):



            $$(A + C +B')(B+A')=AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



            (p.s. when working with $+$ and $cdot$, I much prefer working with $P'$ for negation rather than ~)



            Now, as Eric indicated, at this point you can simplify:



            $$AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



            $$=AB+0+CB+CA'+0+
            B'A'$$



            $$=AB+CB+CA'+B'A'$$



            Ok, now multiply this with $B+C'$, again canceling any term where you get a variable and its negation ... and then with $A'+C'$



            Now, it also holds that:



            $$(a+b)(c+d)(e+f)=ace+acf+ade+adf+bce+bcf+bde+bdf$$



            Again, see how that works? You multiply each one variable from each one of the terms with each other: you get each possible combination.



            So, you could have done something like this in one big ass huge step as well, starting with your RHS: you would have gotten $3cdot 2cdot 2 cdot 2=24$ terms .... but all that would simplify to just the three terms from your LHS.



            Now, you asked whether you couldn't start with the LHS and end up with the HS. Well, first of all, if you can figure out how to go from the RHS to the LHS, then you can just reverse that process to go from LHS to RHS, since they are all equivalences.



            However, you can also do this. As it turns out, in Boolean algebra it also holds that:



            $$ab+cd=(a+c)(a+d)(b+c)(b+d)$$



            This is a little less intuitive, because this of course isn't true for numbers (which is why both Eric and I recommended going from RHS to LHS), but again, in a boolean algebra it does hold true, and so you could start with your LHS and do this:



            $$ABC'+A'BC+A'B'C'=(A+A'+A')(A+A'+B')(A+A'+C')(A+B+A) ....$$



            And so now you would have gotten $3 cdot 3 cdot 3 =27$ terms, but this time you have that $A + A'=1$, and so any term with a variable and its negation disappears ... and you should end up with just the $4$ terms of your RHS.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Do you remember FOIL from algebra when dealing with numbers? It's that:



            $$(a+b)(c+d)=ac+ad+bc+bd$$



            Well, the same holds in a Boolean algebra. Moreover, it generalizes:



            $$(a+b)(c+d+e)=ac+ad+ae+bc+bd+be$$



            See how that works? You just multiply one variable from the one term with each one of the variables from the other term.



            Notice how we can apply this to the first two terms of your RHS (right hand side):



            $$(A + C +B')(B+A')=AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



            (p.s. when working with $+$ and $cdot$, I much prefer working with $P'$ for negation rather than ~)



            Now, as Eric indicated, at this point you can simplify:



            $$AB+AA'+CB+CA'+B'B+B'A'$$



            $$=AB+0+CB+CA'+0+
            B'A'$$



            $$=AB+CB+CA'+B'A'$$



            Ok, now multiply this with $B+C'$, again canceling any term where you get a variable and its negation ... and then with $A'+C'$



            Now, it also holds that:



            $$(a+b)(c+d)(e+f)=ace+acf+ade+adf+bce+bcf+bde+bdf$$



            Again, see how that works? You multiply each one variable from each one of the terms with each other: you get each possible combination.



            So, you could have done something like this in one big ass huge step as well, starting with your RHS: you would have gotten $3cdot 2cdot 2 cdot 2=24$ terms .... but all that would simplify to just the three terms from your LHS.



            Now, you asked whether you couldn't start with the LHS and end up with the HS. Well, first of all, if you can figure out how to go from the RHS to the LHS, then you can just reverse that process to go from LHS to RHS, since they are all equivalences.



            However, you can also do this. As it turns out, in Boolean algebra it also holds that:



            $$ab+cd=(a+c)(a+d)(b+c)(b+d)$$



            This is a little less intuitive, because this of course isn't true for numbers (which is why both Eric and I recommended going from RHS to LHS), but again, in a boolean algebra it does hold true, and so you could start with your LHS and do this:



            $$ABC'+A'BC+A'B'C'=(A+A'+A')(A+A'+B')(A+A'+C')(A+B+A) ....$$



            And so now you would have gotten $3 cdot 3 cdot 3 =27$ terms, but this time you have that $A + A'=1$, and so any term with a variable and its negation disappears ... and you should end up with just the $4$ terms of your RHS.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 19 at 13:25

























            answered Jan 19 at 3:15









            Bram28Bram28

            63.2k44793




            63.2k44793












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the response Bram I really appreciate it. I need to go the opposite way though. (A+C+∼B)(B+∼A)(B+∼C)(∼A+∼C) is the answer. I need to find how AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C Equals it. I may have phrased the question badly.
              $endgroup$
              – Adam
              Jan 19 at 3:18








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Adam: This is the same technique I suggested in my answer. It doesn't matter what direction you start from. If you're trying to show that X = Y, you can manipulate Y to equal X, or X to equal Y. All the operations are reversible; that's a fundamental property of equality. If you're required to show it in one direction, you can literally just write your equalities starting from the bottom of the page and moving up, instead of starting from the top and moving down!
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Lippert
              Jan 19 at 4:28












            • $begingroup$
              @Adam As Eric says, it doesn't matter which side you start: since every step is an equivalence, you can always reverse direction when you are all done. But, let me add something to my answer that shows you can start from the left as well.
              $endgroup$
              – Bram28
              Jan 19 at 13:00










            • $begingroup$
              @EricLippert Thanks Eric!
              $endgroup$
              – Bram28
              Jan 19 at 13:25


















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the response Bram I really appreciate it. I need to go the opposite way though. (A+C+∼B)(B+∼A)(B+∼C)(∼A+∼C) is the answer. I need to find how AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C Equals it. I may have phrased the question badly.
              $endgroup$
              – Adam
              Jan 19 at 3:18








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @Adam: This is the same technique I suggested in my answer. It doesn't matter what direction you start from. If you're trying to show that X = Y, you can manipulate Y to equal X, or X to equal Y. All the operations are reversible; that's a fundamental property of equality. If you're required to show it in one direction, you can literally just write your equalities starting from the bottom of the page and moving up, instead of starting from the top and moving down!
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Lippert
              Jan 19 at 4:28












            • $begingroup$
              @Adam As Eric says, it doesn't matter which side you start: since every step is an equivalence, you can always reverse direction when you are all done. But, let me add something to my answer that shows you can start from the left as well.
              $endgroup$
              – Bram28
              Jan 19 at 13:00










            • $begingroup$
              @EricLippert Thanks Eric!
              $endgroup$
              – Bram28
              Jan 19 at 13:25
















            $begingroup$
            Thanks for the response Bram I really appreciate it. I need to go the opposite way though. (A+C+∼B)(B+∼A)(B+∼C)(∼A+∼C) is the answer. I need to find how AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C Equals it. I may have phrased the question badly.
            $endgroup$
            – Adam
            Jan 19 at 3:18






            $begingroup$
            Thanks for the response Bram I really appreciate it. I need to go the opposite way though. (A+C+∼B)(B+∼A)(B+∼C)(∼A+∼C) is the answer. I need to find how AB∼C+∼ABC+∼A∼B∼C Equals it. I may have phrased the question badly.
            $endgroup$
            – Adam
            Jan 19 at 3:18






            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @Adam: This is the same technique I suggested in my answer. It doesn't matter what direction you start from. If you're trying to show that X = Y, you can manipulate Y to equal X, or X to equal Y. All the operations are reversible; that's a fundamental property of equality. If you're required to show it in one direction, you can literally just write your equalities starting from the bottom of the page and moving up, instead of starting from the top and moving down!
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Lippert
            Jan 19 at 4:28






            $begingroup$
            @Adam: This is the same technique I suggested in my answer. It doesn't matter what direction you start from. If you're trying to show that X = Y, you can manipulate Y to equal X, or X to equal Y. All the operations are reversible; that's a fundamental property of equality. If you're required to show it in one direction, you can literally just write your equalities starting from the bottom of the page and moving up, instead of starting from the top and moving down!
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Lippert
            Jan 19 at 4:28














            $begingroup$
            @Adam As Eric says, it doesn't matter which side you start: since every step is an equivalence, you can always reverse direction when you are all done. But, let me add something to my answer that shows you can start from the left as well.
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Jan 19 at 13:00




            $begingroup$
            @Adam As Eric says, it doesn't matter which side you start: since every step is an equivalence, you can always reverse direction when you are all done. But, let me add something to my answer that shows you can start from the left as well.
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Jan 19 at 13:00












            $begingroup$
            @EricLippert Thanks Eric!
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Jan 19 at 13:25




            $begingroup$
            @EricLippert Thanks Eric!
            $endgroup$
            – Bram28
            Jan 19 at 13:25


















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