Hexagon not regular












2












$begingroup$


Plotting the set:



$$ small
left{
(x,,y) in mathbb{R}^2 :
x + frac{3}{2} le y le x + 2, ;
3,x le y le 3,x + 1, ;
-2,x + 3 le y le -2,x + 4
right} $$



the following hexagon is obtained:



enter image description here



which is characterized by sides that are two to two parallel, but not congruent.



I noticed that the lines that connect the midpoints of the parallel sides pass through a single point. I'm thinking how to proof this fact with synthetic geometry, but nothing comes to mind of elementary. Ideas?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Plotting the set:



    $$ small
    left{
    (x,,y) in mathbb{R}^2 :
    x + frac{3}{2} le y le x + 2, ;
    3,x le y le 3,x + 1, ;
    -2,x + 3 le y le -2,x + 4
    right} $$



    the following hexagon is obtained:



    enter image description here



    which is characterized by sides that are two to two parallel, but not congruent.



    I noticed that the lines that connect the midpoints of the parallel sides pass through a single point. I'm thinking how to proof this fact with synthetic geometry, but nothing comes to mind of elementary. Ideas?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Plotting the set:



      $$ small
      left{
      (x,,y) in mathbb{R}^2 :
      x + frac{3}{2} le y le x + 2, ;
      3,x le y le 3,x + 1, ;
      -2,x + 3 le y le -2,x + 4
      right} $$



      the following hexagon is obtained:



      enter image description here



      which is characterized by sides that are two to two parallel, but not congruent.



      I noticed that the lines that connect the midpoints of the parallel sides pass through a single point. I'm thinking how to proof this fact with synthetic geometry, but nothing comes to mind of elementary. Ideas?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Plotting the set:



      $$ small
      left{
      (x,,y) in mathbb{R}^2 :
      x + frac{3}{2} le y le x + 2, ;
      3,x le y le 3,x + 1, ;
      -2,x + 3 le y le -2,x + 4
      right} $$



      the following hexagon is obtained:



      enter image description here



      which is characterized by sides that are two to two parallel, but not congruent.



      I noticed that the lines that connect the midpoints of the parallel sides pass through a single point. I'm thinking how to proof this fact with synthetic geometry, but nothing comes to mind of elementary. Ideas?







      geometry






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 18 at 23:27









      TeMTeM

      459316




      459316






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          2












          $begingroup$

          This is an old problem. It appeared e.g. in Prasolov's book as problem 5.80.



          Below I present a proof I came up with once; it assumes familiarity with some projective geometry though.



          Let $ABCDEF$ be a hexagon whose pairs of opposite sides are parallel. Note that $X:=AB cap DE, Y:=BC cap EF, Z:=CD cap FA$ are points at infinity, and therefore are collinear (they lie on the line in the infinity). By Pascal theorem, $ABCDEF$ is inscribed in a conic.



          Denoting the midpoints of $AB$ and $DE$ by $K$ and $L$, respectively, we see that quadruples $(A,B,X,K)$, $(D,E,X,L)$ are harmonic. It follows that $KL$ is the polar line of $X$ with respect to the circumconic of $ABCDEF$. Hence, the pole of the line in infinity lies on $KL$. An analogous argument shows that the other two lines determined by the midpoints of opposite sides of $ABCDEF$ pass through the pole of the line in infinity, which solves the problem.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I heartily thank you, but unfortunately my level of geometry does not allow me to understand this demonstration! Is it not that you also know a less elegant demonstration that uses only elementary Euclidean geometry?
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 9:07






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @TeM Check out my edited answer. I have added a source of this problem, you can find an elementary solution there.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Jan 19 at 14:13












          • $begingroup$
            proof of exquisite workmanship! ^_^
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 14:41











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          This is an old problem. It appeared e.g. in Prasolov's book as problem 5.80.



          Below I present a proof I came up with once; it assumes familiarity with some projective geometry though.



          Let $ABCDEF$ be a hexagon whose pairs of opposite sides are parallel. Note that $X:=AB cap DE, Y:=BC cap EF, Z:=CD cap FA$ are points at infinity, and therefore are collinear (they lie on the line in the infinity). By Pascal theorem, $ABCDEF$ is inscribed in a conic.



          Denoting the midpoints of $AB$ and $DE$ by $K$ and $L$, respectively, we see that quadruples $(A,B,X,K)$, $(D,E,X,L)$ are harmonic. It follows that $KL$ is the polar line of $X$ with respect to the circumconic of $ABCDEF$. Hence, the pole of the line in infinity lies on $KL$. An analogous argument shows that the other two lines determined by the midpoints of opposite sides of $ABCDEF$ pass through the pole of the line in infinity, which solves the problem.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I heartily thank you, but unfortunately my level of geometry does not allow me to understand this demonstration! Is it not that you also know a less elegant demonstration that uses only elementary Euclidean geometry?
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 9:07






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @TeM Check out my edited answer. I have added a source of this problem, you can find an elementary solution there.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Jan 19 at 14:13












          • $begingroup$
            proof of exquisite workmanship! ^_^
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 14:41
















          2












          $begingroup$

          This is an old problem. It appeared e.g. in Prasolov's book as problem 5.80.



          Below I present a proof I came up with once; it assumes familiarity with some projective geometry though.



          Let $ABCDEF$ be a hexagon whose pairs of opposite sides are parallel. Note that $X:=AB cap DE, Y:=BC cap EF, Z:=CD cap FA$ are points at infinity, and therefore are collinear (they lie on the line in the infinity). By Pascal theorem, $ABCDEF$ is inscribed in a conic.



          Denoting the midpoints of $AB$ and $DE$ by $K$ and $L$, respectively, we see that quadruples $(A,B,X,K)$, $(D,E,X,L)$ are harmonic. It follows that $KL$ is the polar line of $X$ with respect to the circumconic of $ABCDEF$. Hence, the pole of the line in infinity lies on $KL$. An analogous argument shows that the other two lines determined by the midpoints of opposite sides of $ABCDEF$ pass through the pole of the line in infinity, which solves the problem.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I heartily thank you, but unfortunately my level of geometry does not allow me to understand this demonstration! Is it not that you also know a less elegant demonstration that uses only elementary Euclidean geometry?
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 9:07






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @TeM Check out my edited answer. I have added a source of this problem, you can find an elementary solution there.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Jan 19 at 14:13












          • $begingroup$
            proof of exquisite workmanship! ^_^
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 14:41














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          This is an old problem. It appeared e.g. in Prasolov's book as problem 5.80.



          Below I present a proof I came up with once; it assumes familiarity with some projective geometry though.



          Let $ABCDEF$ be a hexagon whose pairs of opposite sides are parallel. Note that $X:=AB cap DE, Y:=BC cap EF, Z:=CD cap FA$ are points at infinity, and therefore are collinear (they lie on the line in the infinity). By Pascal theorem, $ABCDEF$ is inscribed in a conic.



          Denoting the midpoints of $AB$ and $DE$ by $K$ and $L$, respectively, we see that quadruples $(A,B,X,K)$, $(D,E,X,L)$ are harmonic. It follows that $KL$ is the polar line of $X$ with respect to the circumconic of $ABCDEF$. Hence, the pole of the line in infinity lies on $KL$. An analogous argument shows that the other two lines determined by the midpoints of opposite sides of $ABCDEF$ pass through the pole of the line in infinity, which solves the problem.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          This is an old problem. It appeared e.g. in Prasolov's book as problem 5.80.



          Below I present a proof I came up with once; it assumes familiarity with some projective geometry though.



          Let $ABCDEF$ be a hexagon whose pairs of opposite sides are parallel. Note that $X:=AB cap DE, Y:=BC cap EF, Z:=CD cap FA$ are points at infinity, and therefore are collinear (they lie on the line in the infinity). By Pascal theorem, $ABCDEF$ is inscribed in a conic.



          Denoting the midpoints of $AB$ and $DE$ by $K$ and $L$, respectively, we see that quadruples $(A,B,X,K)$, $(D,E,X,L)$ are harmonic. It follows that $KL$ is the polar line of $X$ with respect to the circumconic of $ABCDEF$. Hence, the pole of the line in infinity lies on $KL$. An analogous argument shows that the other two lines determined by the midpoints of opposite sides of $ABCDEF$ pass through the pole of the line in infinity, which solves the problem.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 19 at 14:11

























          answered Jan 19 at 0:08









          timon92timon92

          4,4171826




          4,4171826












          • $begingroup$
            I heartily thank you, but unfortunately my level of geometry does not allow me to understand this demonstration! Is it not that you also know a less elegant demonstration that uses only elementary Euclidean geometry?
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 9:07






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @TeM Check out my edited answer. I have added a source of this problem, you can find an elementary solution there.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Jan 19 at 14:13












          • $begingroup$
            proof of exquisite workmanship! ^_^
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 14:41


















          • $begingroup$
            I heartily thank you, but unfortunately my level of geometry does not allow me to understand this demonstration! Is it not that you also know a less elegant demonstration that uses only elementary Euclidean geometry?
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 9:07






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @TeM Check out my edited answer. I have added a source of this problem, you can find an elementary solution there.
            $endgroup$
            – timon92
            Jan 19 at 14:13












          • $begingroup$
            proof of exquisite workmanship! ^_^
            $endgroup$
            – TeM
            Jan 19 at 14:41
















          $begingroup$
          I heartily thank you, but unfortunately my level of geometry does not allow me to understand this demonstration! Is it not that you also know a less elegant demonstration that uses only elementary Euclidean geometry?
          $endgroup$
          – TeM
          Jan 19 at 9:07




          $begingroup$
          I heartily thank you, but unfortunately my level of geometry does not allow me to understand this demonstration! Is it not that you also know a less elegant demonstration that uses only elementary Euclidean geometry?
          $endgroup$
          – TeM
          Jan 19 at 9:07




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @TeM Check out my edited answer. I have added a source of this problem, you can find an elementary solution there.
          $endgroup$
          – timon92
          Jan 19 at 14:13






          $begingroup$
          @TeM Check out my edited answer. I have added a source of this problem, you can find an elementary solution there.
          $endgroup$
          – timon92
          Jan 19 at 14:13














          $begingroup$
          proof of exquisite workmanship! ^_^
          $endgroup$
          – TeM
          Jan 19 at 14:41




          $begingroup$
          proof of exquisite workmanship! ^_^
          $endgroup$
          – TeM
          Jan 19 at 14:41


















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