Evaluating the $k$th derivative of composite $gcirc f$ if $f^{prime}(0) = 0$ without using Bruno's theorem












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Suppose $f$ and $g$ are infinitely differentiable. Suppose $f^{prime}(0) = 0$. Consider the composite function $g circ f$. If I wanted to calculate the $k$th derivative of $g circ f$ and evaluate this function at $0$, we know a priori that it will be zero. However, to prove this without appealing to Bruno's Formula, would it be sufficient to observe that
$$frac{d^k}{dx^k} g(f(x)) = frac{d^{k-1}}{dx^{k-1}} big[g^{prime}(f(x)) f^{prime}(x)big]$$
so that
$$frac{d^k}{dx^k} g(f(0)) = frac{d^{k-1}}{dx^{k-1}} ,big[g^{prime}(f(0)) f^{prime}(0)big] = 0$$
Edit: Assuming that $0$ is in the domain of $f$, of course.










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    $begingroup$


    Suppose $f$ and $g$ are infinitely differentiable. Suppose $f^{prime}(0) = 0$. Consider the composite function $g circ f$. If I wanted to calculate the $k$th derivative of $g circ f$ and evaluate this function at $0$, we know a priori that it will be zero. However, to prove this without appealing to Bruno's Formula, would it be sufficient to observe that
    $$frac{d^k}{dx^k} g(f(x)) = frac{d^{k-1}}{dx^{k-1}} big[g^{prime}(f(x)) f^{prime}(x)big]$$
    so that
    $$frac{d^k}{dx^k} g(f(0)) = frac{d^{k-1}}{dx^{k-1}} ,big[g^{prime}(f(0)) f^{prime}(0)big] = 0$$
    Edit: Assuming that $0$ is in the domain of $f$, of course.










    share|cite|improve this question









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      0





      $begingroup$


      Suppose $f$ and $g$ are infinitely differentiable. Suppose $f^{prime}(0) = 0$. Consider the composite function $g circ f$. If I wanted to calculate the $k$th derivative of $g circ f$ and evaluate this function at $0$, we know a priori that it will be zero. However, to prove this without appealing to Bruno's Formula, would it be sufficient to observe that
      $$frac{d^k}{dx^k} g(f(x)) = frac{d^{k-1}}{dx^{k-1}} big[g^{prime}(f(x)) f^{prime}(x)big]$$
      so that
      $$frac{d^k}{dx^k} g(f(0)) = frac{d^{k-1}}{dx^{k-1}} ,big[g^{prime}(f(0)) f^{prime}(0)big] = 0$$
      Edit: Assuming that $0$ is in the domain of $f$, of course.










      share|cite|improve this question









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      Suppose $f$ and $g$ are infinitely differentiable. Suppose $f^{prime}(0) = 0$. Consider the composite function $g circ f$. If I wanted to calculate the $k$th derivative of $g circ f$ and evaluate this function at $0$, we know a priori that it will be zero. However, to prove this without appealing to Bruno's Formula, would it be sufficient to observe that
      $$frac{d^k}{dx^k} g(f(x)) = frac{d^{k-1}}{dx^{k-1}} big[g^{prime}(f(x)) f^{prime}(x)big]$$
      so that
      $$frac{d^k}{dx^k} g(f(0)) = frac{d^{k-1}}{dx^{k-1}} ,big[g^{prime}(f(0)) f^{prime}(0)big] = 0$$
      Edit: Assuming that $0$ is in the domain of $f$, of course.







      derivatives function-and-relation-composition






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      asked Jan 10 at 5:49









      Benedict VoltaireBenedict Voltaire

      1,308928




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          $begingroup$

          Counterexample: $g(x)=e^x$ and $f(x)=x^2$. If $h:=g circ f$, then $h''(0)=2 ne 0.$






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          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – Benedict Voltaire
            Jan 10 at 6:05











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          $begingroup$

          Counterexample: $g(x)=e^x$ and $f(x)=x^2$. If $h:=g circ f$, then $h''(0)=2 ne 0.$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – Benedict Voltaire
            Jan 10 at 6:05
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Counterexample: $g(x)=e^x$ and $f(x)=x^2$. If $h:=g circ f$, then $h''(0)=2 ne 0.$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – Benedict Voltaire
            Jan 10 at 6:05














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Counterexample: $g(x)=e^x$ and $f(x)=x^2$. If $h:=g circ f$, then $h''(0)=2 ne 0.$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Counterexample: $g(x)=e^x$ and $f(x)=x^2$. If $h:=g circ f$, then $h''(0)=2 ne 0.$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 10 at 5:58









          FredFred

          45.7k1848




          45.7k1848












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – Benedict Voltaire
            Jan 10 at 6:05


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for your counterexample.
            $endgroup$
            – Benedict Voltaire
            Jan 10 at 6:05
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for your counterexample.
          $endgroup$
          – Benedict Voltaire
          Jan 10 at 6:05




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for your counterexample.
          $endgroup$
          – Benedict Voltaire
          Jan 10 at 6:05


















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