How to prove that $A^T y=0implies y=0$ if and only if $A$ defines a surjective linear transformation?












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I know that in vector spaces, the cokernel of a linear transformation $f$ is isomorphic to the set of all $y$ such that $f^T(y)=0.$ (This is the transpose of $f$.) Then, how can I prove that $text{coker} f={0}$ if and only if $f$ is surjective?



I would apreciate a proof without any heavy machinery (that is, without something that is not taught in a linear algebra course).



Thank you










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    1












    $begingroup$


    I know that in vector spaces, the cokernel of a linear transformation $f$ is isomorphic to the set of all $y$ such that $f^T(y)=0.$ (This is the transpose of $f$.) Then, how can I prove that $text{coker} f={0}$ if and only if $f$ is surjective?



    I would apreciate a proof without any heavy machinery (that is, without something that is not taught in a linear algebra course).



    Thank you










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I know that in vector spaces, the cokernel of a linear transformation $f$ is isomorphic to the set of all $y$ such that $f^T(y)=0.$ (This is the transpose of $f$.) Then, how can I prove that $text{coker} f={0}$ if and only if $f$ is surjective?



      I would apreciate a proof without any heavy machinery (that is, without something that is not taught in a linear algebra course).



      Thank you










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I know that in vector spaces, the cokernel of a linear transformation $f$ is isomorphic to the set of all $y$ such that $f^T(y)=0.$ (This is the transpose of $f$.) Then, how can I prove that $text{coker} f={0}$ if and only if $f$ is surjective?



      I would apreciate a proof without any heavy machinery (that is, without something that is not taught in a linear algebra course).



      Thank you







      linear-algebra abstract-algebra category-theory






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      asked Jan 10 at 11:33









      Gabriel RibeiroGabriel Ribeiro

      1,441522




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          3 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          The implication is equivalent to $A^T$ having a null kernel. This is equivalent to its rank being $m$, where $A$ is $m times n$.



          So the implication is equivalent to $rank(A)=m$. Since $im(A)$ is in $K^m$, this is equivalent to $A$ defining a surjective linear transformation.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1












            $begingroup$

            Left multiplication by $A^T$ is injective iff $A^T$ has a pivot in every column iff $A$ has a pivot in every row iff left multiplication by $A$ is surjective.






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              $begingroup$

              So, we have a function $f: Xrightarrow Y$ such that $f(x)=Ax$. Suppose $y$ is in the range of $f$. Then there is some $x$ such that $y=f(x)$, and if $f$ is injective, this $x$ is unique. So given $y$, we can define a function $g$ that returns that $x$. If $By=g(y)$, then $BAx=x$. Thus, $BA$ is the identity (on $X$). So $A^TB^T$ is also the identity (although on $Y$ rather than $X$). Thus, given any $y$, there is some $x$ such that $A^Tx=y$: if we take $x=B^Ty$, then $A^Tx=A^TB^Ty=y$. This show that $A$ being injective implies that $A^T$ is surjective. The other direction follows similarly.



              In other words, being surjective is equivalent to there being a right inverse, and being injective is equivalent to there being a left inverse. So $A$ is injective $rightarrow$ $A$ has a left inverse $rightarrow$ $A^T$ has a right inverse $rightarrow$ $A$ is surjective.






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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                2












                $begingroup$

                The implication is equivalent to $A^T$ having a null kernel. This is equivalent to its rank being $m$, where $A$ is $m times n$.



                So the implication is equivalent to $rank(A)=m$. Since $im(A)$ is in $K^m$, this is equivalent to $A$ defining a surjective linear transformation.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  The implication is equivalent to $A^T$ having a null kernel. This is equivalent to its rank being $m$, where $A$ is $m times n$.



                  So the implication is equivalent to $rank(A)=m$. Since $im(A)$ is in $K^m$, this is equivalent to $A$ defining a surjective linear transformation.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    The implication is equivalent to $A^T$ having a null kernel. This is equivalent to its rank being $m$, where $A$ is $m times n$.



                    So the implication is equivalent to $rank(A)=m$. Since $im(A)$ is in $K^m$, this is equivalent to $A$ defining a surjective linear transformation.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    The implication is equivalent to $A^T$ having a null kernel. This is equivalent to its rank being $m$, where $A$ is $m times n$.



                    So the implication is equivalent to $rank(A)=m$. Since $im(A)$ is in $K^m$, this is equivalent to $A$ defining a surjective linear transformation.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 10 at 11:39









                    MindlackMindlack

                    3,53717




                    3,53717























                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Left multiplication by $A^T$ is injective iff $A^T$ has a pivot in every column iff $A$ has a pivot in every row iff left multiplication by $A$ is surjective.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          Left multiplication by $A^T$ is injective iff $A^T$ has a pivot in every column iff $A$ has a pivot in every row iff left multiplication by $A$ is surjective.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            1












                            1








                            1





                            $begingroup$

                            Left multiplication by $A^T$ is injective iff $A^T$ has a pivot in every column iff $A$ has a pivot in every row iff left multiplication by $A$ is surjective.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Left multiplication by $A^T$ is injective iff $A^T$ has a pivot in every column iff $A$ has a pivot in every row iff left multiplication by $A$ is surjective.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Jan 10 at 16:05









                            André 3000André 3000

                            12.6k22243




                            12.6k22243























                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                So, we have a function $f: Xrightarrow Y$ such that $f(x)=Ax$. Suppose $y$ is in the range of $f$. Then there is some $x$ such that $y=f(x)$, and if $f$ is injective, this $x$ is unique. So given $y$, we can define a function $g$ that returns that $x$. If $By=g(y)$, then $BAx=x$. Thus, $BA$ is the identity (on $X$). So $A^TB^T$ is also the identity (although on $Y$ rather than $X$). Thus, given any $y$, there is some $x$ such that $A^Tx=y$: if we take $x=B^Ty$, then $A^Tx=A^TB^Ty=y$. This show that $A$ being injective implies that $A^T$ is surjective. The other direction follows similarly.



                                In other words, being surjective is equivalent to there being a right inverse, and being injective is equivalent to there being a left inverse. So $A$ is injective $rightarrow$ $A$ has a left inverse $rightarrow$ $A^T$ has a right inverse $rightarrow$ $A$ is surjective.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$


















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  So, we have a function $f: Xrightarrow Y$ such that $f(x)=Ax$. Suppose $y$ is in the range of $f$. Then there is some $x$ such that $y=f(x)$, and if $f$ is injective, this $x$ is unique. So given $y$, we can define a function $g$ that returns that $x$. If $By=g(y)$, then $BAx=x$. Thus, $BA$ is the identity (on $X$). So $A^TB^T$ is also the identity (although on $Y$ rather than $X$). Thus, given any $y$, there is some $x$ such that $A^Tx=y$: if we take $x=B^Ty$, then $A^Tx=A^TB^Ty=y$. This show that $A$ being injective implies that $A^T$ is surjective. The other direction follows similarly.



                                  In other words, being surjective is equivalent to there being a right inverse, and being injective is equivalent to there being a left inverse. So $A$ is injective $rightarrow$ $A$ has a left inverse $rightarrow$ $A^T$ has a right inverse $rightarrow$ $A$ is surjective.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$
















                                    0












                                    0








                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    So, we have a function $f: Xrightarrow Y$ such that $f(x)=Ax$. Suppose $y$ is in the range of $f$. Then there is some $x$ such that $y=f(x)$, and if $f$ is injective, this $x$ is unique. So given $y$, we can define a function $g$ that returns that $x$. If $By=g(y)$, then $BAx=x$. Thus, $BA$ is the identity (on $X$). So $A^TB^T$ is also the identity (although on $Y$ rather than $X$). Thus, given any $y$, there is some $x$ such that $A^Tx=y$: if we take $x=B^Ty$, then $A^Tx=A^TB^Ty=y$. This show that $A$ being injective implies that $A^T$ is surjective. The other direction follows similarly.



                                    In other words, being surjective is equivalent to there being a right inverse, and being injective is equivalent to there being a left inverse. So $A$ is injective $rightarrow$ $A$ has a left inverse $rightarrow$ $A^T$ has a right inverse $rightarrow$ $A$ is surjective.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    So, we have a function $f: Xrightarrow Y$ such that $f(x)=Ax$. Suppose $y$ is in the range of $f$. Then there is some $x$ such that $y=f(x)$, and if $f$ is injective, this $x$ is unique. So given $y$, we can define a function $g$ that returns that $x$. If $By=g(y)$, then $BAx=x$. Thus, $BA$ is the identity (on $X$). So $A^TB^T$ is also the identity (although on $Y$ rather than $X$). Thus, given any $y$, there is some $x$ such that $A^Tx=y$: if we take $x=B^Ty$, then $A^Tx=A^TB^Ty=y$. This show that $A$ being injective implies that $A^T$ is surjective. The other direction follows similarly.



                                    In other words, being surjective is equivalent to there being a right inverse, and being injective is equivalent to there being a left inverse. So $A$ is injective $rightarrow$ $A$ has a left inverse $rightarrow$ $A^T$ has a right inverse $rightarrow$ $A$ is surjective.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Jan 10 at 22:23









                                    AcccumulationAcccumulation

                                    6,9042618




                                    6,9042618






























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